The Wizard said:
Where does the question state the conveyor belt has to match the planes ground speed? The question states
"The conveyor best is designed to exactly match the speed of the wheels.
As was pointed out a few times already, the original wording is faulty. It only makes sense if it's the ground speed that is matched.
Let's take the original wording at face value.
It means either that the conveyor matches the speed of the wheel hub w/r to the conveyor surface, or that it matches the linear speed of tire contact point with the conveyor surface. The difference is in the direction the conveyor is moving, which will be against plane velocity in the former case, and in the same direction as the plane in the latter. Both result in the same problem. Although it's worth noting that this ambiguity is yet another issue with how the question is formulated.
Since I think it's generally supposed for the conveyor to move against the direction of takeoff, let's assume the wheel velocity is measured between their hub and the conveyor surface.
##V_w## - speed of the wheels
##V_c## - speed of conveyor (measured at top surface w/r to the ground)
##V_p## - speed of the plane w/r to the ground
When the plane is stationary, all velocities = 0 and there's no problem.
But as soon as the plane engages its engines and start moving w/r to the ground with any non-zero velocity ##V_p##, it momentarily causes the wheels to have velocity w/r to the conveyor ##V_{w0}=V_p##.
In accordance with the wording of the question, this in turn causes the conveyor to match the speed of the wheels in the opposite direction:
##V_{c0}=-V_{w0}=-V_p##.
Only now, the motion of the conveyor changes the speed of wheels:
##V_{w1}=V_{w0}-V_{c0}=2V_{w0}##
This makes the conveyor speed up to match the new velocity:
##V_{w2}=V_{w1}-V_{c1}=2V_{w1}=4V_{w0}##
which again makes the wheels roll faster, and so on, without limit. All of this happens regardless of how fast the plane is moving, as long as it's not 0.
Changing the meaning of the speed of wheels to the linear velocity of tire contact point changes only the sign of:
##V_{c0}=-V_{w0}=V_p##.
That's why the original wording of the question is faulty - it makes the conveyor and the wheels roll at infinite velocities as soon as the plane starts moving. The only sensible wording of the question is to make the conveyor match the ground speed of the plane.
(I've just noticed
@jbriggs444 wrote pretty much the same thing in his edited post. Redundant redundancy is redundant.)
Clausen said:
But that violates the stipulation that the tires must exactly match the belt speed! If that stipulation holds then as the tires rotate through one meter, the belt moves back one meter from some fixed reference (the ground) In that case, the plane cannot move forward unless it also slides as it rolls. At least, that is how I see it.
You're giving the question too much credit. There's no indication that slipping was to be taken into account. If the question included e.g. something along the lines of 'assume thrust is X, rolling resistance is Y while slipping resistance is Z - can the plane take off?' then we could ponder how to make it work. Heck, why not assume there's no slipping, but the belt can only accelerate realistically, so that the question requires figuring out whether the plane can take off before the belt accelerates enough for the wheel bearings to blow off and the undercarriage to collapse or the rubber catches fire. We'd only need to know another dozen variables to solve it.
Remember that this is not a well-though out textbook problem. It's a question that's been circulating around Facebook and the internet at large. Somebody must have at some point copied it without understanding, and changed the wording to what they thought was equivalent, but was in fact physically faulty.