Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics?

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The discussion centers on the claim that everything in the universe can be explained solely by physics. Participants express skepticism about this assertion, highlighting the limitations of physics and mathematics in fully capturing the complexities of reality, particularly concerning consciousness and life. The conversation touches on the uncertainty principle, suggesting that while physics can provide approximations, it cannot offer absolute explanations due to inherent limitations in measurement and understanding.There is a debate about whether all phenomena, including moral and religious beliefs, can be explained physically. Some argue that even concepts like a Creator could be subject to physical laws, while others assert that there may be aspects of reality that transcend physical explanations. The idea that order can emerge from chaos is also discussed, with participants questioning the validity of this claim in light of the unpredictability observed in complex systems.Overall, the consensus leans towards the notion that while physics can describe many aspects of the universe, it may not be sufficient to explain everything, particularly when it comes to subjective experiences and the nature of consciousness.

In which other ways can the Physical world be explained?

  • By Physics alone?

    Votes: 144 48.0%
  • By Religion alone?

    Votes: 8 2.7%
  • By any other discipline?

    Votes: 12 4.0%
  • By Multi-disciplinary efforts?

    Votes: 136 45.3%

  • Total voters
    300
  • #851
selfAdjoint said:
This seems OK to me, although I have a couple of questions.
1.Can you justify your basic assumption of functions: Rn -> Ck?
Maybe you could make your question a little clearer. I don't believe I have "made an assumption" here; I have made a statement about the representation I prefer. A "function" is a statement of a relationship. When one says there is a functional relationship between two things, it generally means that what is accepted as the "subject under discussion" depends on something else, what is usually termed the "the argument of the function". There is utterly no need for the "subject under discussion" and the "argument of the function" to be chosen from similar sets. ("My investment decisions are a function of what I read in the newspaper" is just as much a statement of a functional relationship as is y=x^2. ) People tend to omit "tabular" functions as valid representations. People our age used a lot of tabular functions when they were young; I suspect a lot of current students have never seen a log table much less thought about the concept of interpolation.

Certainly the collection of all possibilities for "the subject under discussion" can be mapped into a set of numbers. Likewise, the collection of all possibilities for "the argument of the function" can also be mapped into a set of numbers. Clearly, those statements are not made false by allowing one to be the set of real numbers and the other to be the set of complex numbers. This is nothing more than a choice of representation.

If you think there is more to it than that, please give me an example of something which cannot be represented in either set of labels. Note that, in my presentation, these numbers are merely used as a set of labels for arbitrary members of sets of interest.
selfAdjoint said:
2 Your definition of adjoint is pretty limited, in agreement with your generality concerns. As you undoubtedly know, the output variables could be a matrix algebra, in which case the adjoint would involve a transpose as well as conjugation, or it might be a general algebra of linear transformations over the complexes, in which case adjointness would have a definition involving the outer product (which in your general plan you have not required). In any case it would be prudent to call your operation conjugation rather than adjoint, to avoid misunderstanding.
Yes, that is true and your criticism is well founded; however, since I don't actually make any use of those additional properties of the "adjoint", the use of the word is not actually "wrong". One could just as well "conjugate" a real number (do nothing to it). Consider it little more than a personal preference. It actually serves no purpose beyond making my notation look like common quanta mechanics notation; an issue which only comes to bear further down the road.

I certainly appreciate hearing from you as I respect your judgment on issues like this. I also appreciate the latitude you are allowing me. Perhaps I have not chosen the best notation for my ideas but it is the notation I have chosen. The biggest problem I have is people trying to read between the lines. If the reader is so habituated to the standard expectations that they cannot remember my definitions then I don't think they really have the capability of following me anyway. I kind of see it as a way of getting those who don't want to think out of the picture. Notice that you, as opposed to others here, were driven to make some intelligent comments. At least I know you are following what I am saying.

Have fun -- Dick
 
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  • #852
My first question was addressed to the fact that you represent inputs by real numbers and outputs by complex numbers. Can you express group relations this way? Do you contemplate using different algebras (quaternions, matrix algebras, von Neumann algebras, etc.) for the values of your outputs? Does your general functional notation encapsulate such structure, or do you not need them?
 
  • #853
selfAdjoint said:
My first question was addressed to the fact that you represent inputs by real numbers and outputs by complex numbers. Can you express group relations this way?
I don't quite understand what you mean by the question, "Can you express group relations this way? Absolutely anything can be expressed by a set of references to concepts. These under normal circumstances would be words whose definition is presumed understood; but, in actual fact, any symbolic label will suffice. I have merely chosen numerical labels because it is easy to express a certain kind of possible shift in meaning of those symbols which must exist in any possible set (just more difficult to express). I chose real numbers in one place and complex numbers in another for the simple reason that I like the form of the resulting expressions.

What I am presenting is not a theory; it is a very specific method of organizing information. It is no more a theory than is the Dewey Decimal system. The important point is that any set of significant concepts can be so labeled and so organized. There is only one constraint on my approach, that would be the fact that any possible information can be laid out for examination in such a manner. If you can show me a set of references to concepts which cannot be so laid out, then you have found a flaw in my organizational procedure. Or, if you can show me a flaw in the deductions based on such a layout, you have found a flaw in my deductions and my results are not supported. However, baring those two factors, I am free to lay out the information any way I wish. Think of it as a layout of coded data where no key to the decoding exists. All information available to us must be retrieved from that information itself a very strange problem indeed.

It is very important that I do not claim to be able to say anything about reality at all. All I am talking about is the consequence of laying data out in such a manner. Those consequences are very surprising in view of the fact that I am making utterly no constraint on the information being analyzed. In fact, it is the position of the scientific community that I could deduce absolutely nothing of significance. Either I have made a subtle error or what I do has very significant and far reaching consequences. If you can point out a significant error (see the above two factors), I would appreciate it very much.
selfAdjoint said:
Do you contemplate using different algebras (quaternions, matrix algebras, von Neumann algebras, etc.) for the values of your outputs? Does your general functional notation encapsulate such structure, or do you not need them?
Not for the outputs of my generalized functions \vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t). However, I will make direct use of matrix algebra quite soon. And down the road, some of the results I will obtain can quite likely be expressed through some of the other mathematical methods you refer to but I won't be using them directly. Actually everything I do is pretty simple and straight forward considering the consequences.

I hope my comments are clear to you -- Dick
 
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  • #854
Yes, thanks. So I think you contemplate possible math structure between your real variable inputs and your complex variable outputs. Now I have another dumb question. Since we do not observe complex valued quantities in our experience, do you plan to translate the complex variables back into reals some way? Of course you recall that this was a big deal in quantum mechanics where Born interpreted the square of the complex wave function, \psi\psi^* as a real probability.
 
  • #855
selfAdjoint said:
Since we do not observe complex valued quantities in our experience, do you plan to translate the complex variables back into reals some way?
With all due respect, can you give me a single example of an observation of a real valued quantity in our experience where the real value is not also a rational value?

Paul
 
  • #856
hmm... after reading so many pages of this thread I've come to this conclusion : Our brain (or whatever that is causing us to think ) isn't 'powerful' enough to solve the many questions that we ask eg. How did the universe start? Now, i think even if there are creatures or aliens who is more intelligent then us (please do not tell me to define intelligence) who can answer this question 'How did the universe start?' there will be more questions like 'Why did it start?' 'What causes it'.
Btw, even IF we can decribe everything using mathematics, how can we know that our mathematics is accurate to decribe it? Therefore, we need something to prove our maths. BUT we need another 'thing' to prove the thing that proves our math. Therefore, we end up questioning and proving forever. I like (with no scientific evidences) to think that the world that we observe (however wrong our observation might be) can be explained by physics(mathematics) (however wrong our maths and physics might be) as long as our observations matches with our equations, we should be happy.
My 2cents worth
 
  • #857
selfAdjoint said:
Yes, thanks. So I think you contemplate possible math structure between your real variable inputs and your complex variable outputs. Now I have another dumb question. Since we do not observe complex valued quantities in our experience, do you plan to translate the complex variables back into reals some way? Of course you recall that this was a big deal in quantum mechanics where Born interpreted the square of the complex wave function, \psi\psi^* as a real probability.
Oh yes, I am going to show the existence of what one would call a "math structure" between the "real" arguments and those complex outputs. But that issue is still down the line a little way.

And I am well aware of Born's interpretation; however, I am sort of developing it from the opposite direction. (You should be pretty well aware of the fact that I tend to look at things from the other direction. :biggrin:) By the way, with regard to the issue of "ignorance" vs "indifference" in the Noether theorem, suppose the universe contained a special point somewhere out there (call it God's survey point; which mankind might someday discover) and that the "correct" solution to the universe depended on where you were relative to that point. Certainly, until we discovered where that point was, any solution to any problem involving that fact would still be governed by Noether's theorem. Yet you really couldn't say we were "indifferent" to its existence.

In my definition of "an explanation", the explanation must yield one's expectations. One's expectations must be expressible as probabilities of possible outcomes. And, finally, the fact that any probability relationship[/color] can be represented via Born's "square of a complex wave function" completes the definition of a universal[/color] representation of our expectations. (Note that the word "wave" is not necessary to my presentation and you should keep in mind that tabular relationships are valid members of the collection of possible functions.) I take the issue of avoiding constraints on my "Dewey Decimal" type procedure very seriously.

The central issue of my attack is that there exists no problem which cannot be so represented. I do not believe this is exactly what Born had in mind at the time. I am pretty sure that his idea developed from the structure of the solution space for mechanical problems expressed in Hamilton-Jocobi mechanics. At least, that was the way I was introduced to the founding of quantum theory. The text we used when I was a graduate student was Classical Mechanics by Herbert Goldstein, sixth edition, 1959. I still have my copy and think it is one of the best discussions of classical mechanics extant. I used to know everything in there, but I have noticed over the last twenty years that my abilities to remember stuff has declined significantly (I am glad I kept the book).

I am enjoying talking to you.

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #858
zeithief said:
hmm... after reading so many pages of this thread I've come to this conclusion : Our brain (or whatever that is causing us to think ) isn't 'powerful' enough to solve the many questions that we ask eg.
Well, perhaps not logically; but I think I would actually differ with you on that issue too! Meanwhile, I certainly think it is "powerful" enough (when one allows those illogical intuitive solutions I call squinking) to come up with a possible solution to almost anything.
zeithief said:
How did the universe start? Now, i think even if there are creatures or aliens who is more intelligent then us (please do not tell me to define intelligence) who can answer this question 'How did the universe start?' there will be more questions like 'Why did it start?' 'What causes it'.
Well, a lot of people out there think (or should I say squink) that "God" just thought it up. Prove that answer is wrong if you can. :smile: :smile:
zeithief said:
Btw, even IF we can decribe everything using mathematics, how can we know that our mathematics is accurate to decribe it? Therefore, we need something to prove our maths. BUT we need another 'thing' to prove the thing that proves our math. Therefore, we end up questioning and proving forever. I like (with no scientific evidences) to think that the world that we observe (however wrong our observation might be) can be explained by physics(mathematics) (however wrong our maths and physics might be) as long as our observations matches with our equations, we should be happy.
My 2cents worth
So, you apparently put a high value on internal consistency and logic. Are you willing to lay aside your intuition (when you do exact science) or not? :biggrin: We have to establish our priorities here!

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #859
"Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics?"
_____________________

Everything, with the exception of the mystifying mass fluctuations of Oprah's butt.
 
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  • #860
digiflux said:
"Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics?"
_____________________

Everything, with the exception of the mystifying mass fluctuations of Oprah's butt.

Oprah's butt is no exception to the rule. If we know about it, then it's explainable. Oprahs butt may fluctuate (infact as radically as it may seem) but at least it is still matter...and within the explanatory realm of physics. In fact, the standard assumption is that if it is matter, then physics should be able to explain it! As you can see the thread is getting more and more mathematical (thanks to Dr. Dick). May be you should ask him to subject the fluctauting part of Oprah's butt to pure mathematical examination or description. As you may well remember, I started this thread with a complete distrust of probabilistic explanations...eg. "OPRAH'S BUTT IS AN APPROXIMATION OF A BUTT!" or "I AM AN APPROXIMATION OF A MAN!" ... and so on. Of course, everything seems to fluctutate or have an aspect that fluctuates, hence creating an impression that there is some sort of deficit in the structure and function of it. In terms of Oprah's butt, it is not clear what deficit needs to be added to it to generate or give a 'Real' butt.

NOTE: The issue is not about what is out there, or what we are aware of or not aware of, but soley about whether we can explain everything humanly conceivable purely from the point of view of physics. But so far the debate seems to suggest that not everything that we are aware of is explainable by pure physics such as the human minds, angels, gods, souls,etc. There is another fundamental problem: we do not even know how many catigories of things are there in the universe, let alone the claim of explaining them in a single leap of fate! Well, on this one your guess is as good as mine!
 
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  • #861
Philocrat said:
But so far the debate seems to suggest that not everything that we are aware of is explainable by pure physics such as the human minds, angels, gods, souls,etc.

Minds I will accept, but those others you mention are not agreed to exist, nor have any good evidence for their existence been posted.

And of coourse whether minds can possibly, eventually, be explained by physics is the subject of a number of threads on these philosophy subforums.
 
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  • #862
selfAdjoint said:
Minds I will accept, but those others you mention are not agreed to exist, nor have any good evidence for their existence been posted.

And of coourse whether minds can possibly, eventually, be explained by physics is the subject of a number of threads on these philosophy subforums.

Would you be prepared to accept the Mind as a Fundamental Metaphysical Catigory, given that Matter is irreducible to nothing else but itself? I raised this issue of irreduciblility of matter to anything else but itself earlier on and no one seems to respond to it, perhaps everyone is agreeing with me about it. If so, good for them. But there is now an urgent need to state and agree on other existing metaphysical catigories, if any, namely (1) Nothing, (2) Mind, (3) Person etc.

Metaphysically, matter is self-standing and self-identifying as a fundamental metaphysical catigory, despite its spooky multi-status nature. That is, matter may multiply into many things or forms, yet it forever remains what it is - Matter! The pressing question now is: how does matter fundamentally relate to other metpahysical catigories, if such catigories really exist in the first place? This is a priceless question that demands an immediate answer. If for an argument's sake that you'er right about non-existence of other such catigories as angels, ghosts, gods etc, are you prepared to admit the mind that you most favour as a self-standing, self-dentifying metaphysical catigory? If so, how does it relate structurally and functionally to its counterpart metaphysical catigory - matter? You see, we are back to square one, almost!
 
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  • #863
Philocrat said:
Would you be prepared to accept the Mind as a Fundamental Metaphysical Catigory, given that Matter is irreducible to nothing else but itself?

Matter can be regarded as a derived concept, since its commonly accepted properties (localization, mass, etc.) are now seen as either special circumstances of quantum fields or the result of interactions between fields. So I think that the current scientific candidate for a basic physical category is the quantum field. In the formal metaphysics of academic philosophy, "mind" may be a separate category from anything physical, but I don't accept this as constraining my own beliefs. I think that consciousness including mystical experiences will yet be shown to be completely reducible to brain chemistry and physics, and the hard problem will turn out to be a "category error".
 
  • #864
selfAdjoint said:
I think that consciousness including mystical experiences will yet be shown to be completely reducible to brain chemistry and physics, and the hard problem will turn out to be a "category error".

I think that the *behavioural aspects* (and hence all that is experimentally measurable about it) will indeed be completely reducible to brain chemistry and physics ; but I don't see how this will solve any issue concerning the hard problem.
Let us imagine that we have superduper biophysical technology, and that you can now transpose "I-experiences" from one person to another, interchange them etc...
So you exchange them between two persons (or, for that matter, between a person and an elephant). After the experiment, the person who did the "mind travelling" tells you about all the weird observations, the strange sensation of being an elephant, he correctly tells you stuff only the elephant knew (namely how he remembers being badly treated when he was a young animal etc...).
Now, does that tell you much about his consciousness, or even WHETHER the person has a consciousness ? No, it just tells you things about the complicated relationship between the chemistry and physics in his brain, connected to the machine and the brain of the elephant, his nerves and muscles of his vocal chords which uttered the words he's been telling you. And if you know all of the necessary chemistry and physics, you could even predict this, voice intonations included (or at least explain it amongst different possibilities). So you are just observing a complicated physical construction which has some behavior you understand. And you STILL don't know if it is conscious or not. You assume it is, by analogy. And that's all you can do.
The only thing you can do is to connect YOURSELF to the machine, and live the weird experience of being an elephant yourself. And now YOU remember stuff of being an elephant, experiences which strongly resemble what the other person told you. And you say, that's normal because my consciousness being associated with the physical structure which is my brain, observes similar physical processes as what happened to the brain of the other person. As you now know how those brains function physically, it explains you your experiences. Because you know you are conscious yourself, you can thus relate the physics of your brain to your consciousness which observes your brain passively. But you can only know things about the physical brain of others, not about their consciousness (which might very well not exist). You can learn about how other brains relate to what their bodies tell you afterwards, and you can observe for yourself that you have similar experiences. But that still doesn't indicate whether those other persons have a consciousness. The hard problem remains intact.

Now, of course as long as we take on the working hypothesis that living persons are "just as conscious as I am" by analogy, we might have the illusion that we know what we are talking about.
The real issue will come up when we will start to make very complicated machines that have conscious-like behavior build into them. Are they, or aren't they conscious ? No way to know ! Ever. You (as many disciplines do!) can get out of the riddle by just redefining what you mean by "consciousness" of course - like behaviouralists do, and like neurologists do. But the "I think therefor I am" kind of consciousness can never behaviorally be determined in something else but yourself - it is a passive observer which doesn't influence any physical process. So how do you know whether a physical construction is being "passively observed by a consciousness" or not ?

EDIT: to push this into a carricatural example, I could claim that polycrystaline granite blocks of more than 2 kg, which are not too damaged, are also conscious. They feel pain each time that a crystal is broken (just as a neurologist could tell us that "the brain feels pain if these neurons in that corner fire"). How are you going to contradict this ?
 
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  • #865
I don't think your examples are very relevant. Suppose they had a machine they could hook up to you and make you conscious of whatever they set the machine to, and did many double blind experiements to verify that yes, their machine settings did agree with what you reported being conscious of, including whatever aspects of the "flavor" of the experience could be reported. Then that would convince me they understood consciouness, and I would regard demurs about "what it was like" to be just quibbles.
 
  • #866
selfAdjoint said:
I don't think your examples are very relevant. Suppose they had a machine they could hook up to you and make you conscious of whatever they set the machine to, and did many double blind experiements to verify that yes, their machine settings did agree with what you reported being conscious of, including whatever aspects of the "flavor" of the experience could be reported. Then that would convince me they understood consciouness, and I would regard demurs about "what it was like" to be just quibbles.

It wouldn't convince me. It would convince me that they perfectly know how human brains work, as physical devices. But what is the difference between setting up a machine that couples to a human brain and makes the human say things about what he experiences, and between programming a computer and make the computer say things about "what he experiences" ? This, to me, indicates only that the programmer knows well his computer. It doesn't indicate to me that the computer is conscious. Now, you can say, ok, they don't know anything about consciousness _in general_ but they now do know something about _human_ consciousness.
Ok, then, so "doing things to a human body" and "know what the human will experience" is a proof that you know about human consciousness ? Does that mean that when I tell you: "look at that movie on the screen" and you then say afterwards "gee, I saw a nice movie" that I "know about human consciousness" ??
You'll object that that is not sophisticated enough. Ok, I guess that all neural coupling to the senses is not good enough, because it is just neurology of the senses, and not yet of consciousness. So, if I could give you some stuff that makes you DRUNK, does that mean that I know about consciousness ?
No, you still mean more sophisticated. If I can make a contact to your brain so that I can read your memory, does that mean I know about consciousness ? No, I just know about the memory function of the brain. I could even CHANGE your memories (cfr "total recall" :-) and that just shows I know about the memory function of your brain.
If I could visualise on a screen what you are thinking, I still don't master your "consciousness" but your cortex processing ; I could even ALTER what you are thinking and I still do not have anything to do with your consciousness.
The only thing you learn from this is that I know very well how your brain physically works, and WHAT ASPECTS OF IT are experienced by your consciousness. But I can still not find out if a piece of granite is conscious or not, and whether it hurts when I break it.

To put it differently, can your machine also be used to couple to a computer's consciousness, to make it happy or sad ? And how do you know ? Or is the computer just running its program and by analysing the code, you "understand" how it works ?
 
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  • #867
They already have software that interprets a monkey's visual experiences sufficiently well that the monkey can learn to use it to direct his arm to a target. So I think in the future they will have the kind of capability I mentioned.

The machine I mentioned does not force the subject to say anything. Calibration would have to deal with all the variables of human interaction, including lying, fantasy, etc. Did you see where I said double blind? The experimenters would not know, nor would the subjects, what settings had been chosen. Only after the interaction would the subject's responses be compared to the settings.
 
  • #868
selfAdjoint said:
The machine I mentioned does not force the subject to say anything. Calibration would have to deal with all the variables of human interaction, including lying, fantasy, etc. Did you see where I said double blind? The experimenters would not know, nor would the subjects, what settings had been chosen. Only after the interaction would the subject's responses be compared to the settings.

Yes, fascinating stuff all this. But it is physics and chemistry of the brain. Nothing to do with consciousness. Imagine that we know EVERYTHING about all the neurons in a typical human brain, and that we have identified that when THIS neuron fires, the subject feels sad, when THAT neuron fires, he sees a red flash in the upper right corner of his left eye, when such a neuron fires, he thinks about "additivity", when that other neuron fires, he feels pain in his left foot...
With all this detailed knowledge, I can build your machine.
What do we know now about consciousness ?
 
  • #869
To give the discussion another twist, if you say that studying the brain enough so that we can "pilot" someone's conscious experience for instance, does that mean that what constitutes consciousness is a classical property of the brain ? I mean, do you think that consciousness (I'm not talking about intelligence, memory, sensory capacity etc...) as you think it can be described, is fully described by a classical theory of the brain, and that you do not fundamentally need to refer to its quantum state ? (meaning: concentrations of chemicals at different points, given by a finite but big number of reals etc...)
If so, I'd argue in the following way: is it the specific topology of the phase space of that classical brain that makes it "conscious" ? If so, are OTHER classical devices with a phase space with very similar (or identical) topology conscious ?
 
  • #870
vanesch said:
If so, are OTHER classical devices with a phase space with very similar (or identical) topology conscious ?

That seems to be what the popular writers around here think (Dennett and Chalmers most explicitly) and of course its the idea behind a lot of science fiction involving conscious machines.
 
  • #871
selfAdjoint said:
Matter can be regarded as a derived concept, since its commonly accepted properties (localization, mass, etc.) are now seen as either special circumstances of quantum fields or the result of interactions between fields. So I think that the current scientific candidate for a basic physical category is the quantum field. In the formal metaphysics of academic philosophy, "mind" may be a separate category from anything physical, but I don't accept this as constraining my own beliefs. I think that consciousness including mystical experiences will yet be shown to be completely reducible to brain chemistry and physics, and the hard problem will turn out to be a "category error".

Yes, "category error" indeed it shall be! Worst stiil, it would be an absolute disgrace to suddenly dawn on all those involved that all there is to the notion of a "person" is matter playing very notorious tricks on the entire human perception. That all there is to a person is matter "multiply self-catogorising" into several of the same kind without in actuality manifesting into fundamental metaphisical catigories that may be construed as self-standing and self-identifying! Pure fiction, that is! There will be a voice from the crowed crying "So we were machines all along without knowing!"

NOTE: One thing self-categorising into several forms of the same kind is a possibility that cannot be easily rulled out. As spooky as this may outwardly seem, matter tends to possesses this spooky aspect. I guess the sooner we admit this, the earlier we would make a headstart and home in on the heart of the matter. Or is it?
 
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  • #872
vanesch said:
I think that the *behavioural aspects* (and hence all that is experimentally measurable about it) will indeed be completely reducible to brain chemistry and physics ; but I don't see how this will solve any issue concerning the hard problem.
Let us imagine that we have superduper biophysical technology, and that you can now transpose "I-experiences" from one person to another, interchange them etc...
So you exchange them between two persons (or, for that matter, between a person and an elephant). After the experiment, the person who did the "mind travelling" tells you about all the weird observations, the strange sensation of being an elephant, he correctly tells you stuff only the elephant knew (namely how he remembers being badly treated when he was a young animal etc...).
Now, does that tell you much about his consciousness, or even WHETHER the person has a consciousness ? No, it just tells you things about the complicated relationship between the chemistry and physics in his brain, connected to the machine and the brain of the elephant, his nerves and muscles of his vocal chords which uttered the words he's been telling you. And if you know all of the necessary chemistry and physics, you could even predict this, voice intonations included (or at least explain it amongst different possibilities). So you are just observing a complicated physical construction which has some behavior you understand. And you STILL don't know if it is conscious or not. You assume it is, by analogy. And that's all you can do.
The only thing you can do is to connect YOURSELF to the machine, and live the weird experience of being an elephant yourself. And now YOU remember stuff of being an elephant, experiences which strongly resemble what the other person told you. And you say, that's normal because my consciousness being associated with the physical structure which is my brain, observes similar physical processes as what happened to the brain of the other person. As you now know how those brains function physically, it explains you your experiences. Because you know you are conscious yourself, you can thus relate the physics of your brain to your consciousness which observes your brain passively. But you can only know things about the physical brain of others, not about their consciousness (which might very well not exist). You can learn about how other brains relate to what their bodies tell you afterwards, and you can observe for yourself that you have similar experiences. But that still doesn't indicate whether those other persons have a consciousness. The hard problem remains intact.

Now, of course as long as we take on the working hypothesis that living persons are "just as conscious as I am" by analogy, we might have the illusion that we know what we are talking about.
The real issue will come up when we will start to make very complicated machines that have conscious-like behavior build into them. Are they, or aren't they conscious ? No way to know ! Ever. You (as many disciplines do!) can get out of the riddle by just redefining what you mean by "consciousness" of course - like behaviouralists do, and like neurologists do. But the "I think therefor I am" kind of consciousness can never behaviorally be determined in something else but yourself - it is a passive observer which doesn't influence any physical process. So how do you know whether a physical construction is being "passively observed by a consciousness" or not ?

EDIT: to push this into a carricatural example, I could claim that polycrystaline granite blocks of more than 2 kg, which are not too damaged, are also conscious. They feel pain each time that a crystal is broken (just as a neurologist could tell us that "the brain feels pain if these neurons in that corner fire"). How are you going to contradict this ?

Your analysis seems to decisively write off the mind as a fundamental metaphysical category, even while you are still generously hanging on to the "hard-problem" spectre. Equally, don't forget that far back in the history of philosophy there are some philosophers that have thought of the mind as a different form of matter, possibly governed by completely different set of laws of physics. If this were to be true, this could very well be the same matter self-catigorising again into an extremely decisive form... a very peculiar one, that is. In other words, mind is decisively matter! Or is it?
 
  • #873
Prometheus said:
2 + 2 = 4. What does this mathematical equation tell us? It tells me that the author does not know mathematics. I am interpreting this using base 3. Aren't you? If not, how would we know? Mathematics must be interpreted. Such interpretation is not within the math, but is beyond the math. Mathematics is a tool, not an end in itself.

checkmate :smile:
 
  • #874
can physics explain the posts on this thread? how do we quantify these thoughts and arguments?

Where do these thoughts lead to in the physical world? To all physical actions there must first be a mental aspect triggered from a previous influence (physical / mental).

There are far too many posts for me to read on this thread... but that's my POV.
 
  • #875
outsider said:
can physics explain the posts on this thread? how do we quantify these thoughts and arguments?

Where do these thoughts lead to in the physical world? To all physical actions there must first be a mental aspect triggered from a previous influence (physical / mental).

There are far too many posts for me to read on this thread... but that's my POV.

There is a close resemblance between your thought and your name..."An outsider looking in". Or am I wrong?. Anyway, there is a substantial elements of truth in your thought. Quantifying the contents of this thread is one thing and loggically reconciling them in a coherent way is another. There are many mathemticians on this forum who can piece all the texts on this thread together, but the tricky bit is logically reconciling all the underlying and related thoughts to derive at a generally acceptable conclusion.

As you may well have noticed, all the thoughts so far generated on this thread are multi-disciplinary in scope and in substance, hence precisely why it is even more difficult to reconcile them, let alone come to a common conclusion. The underlying tasks in this discuss are undisputedly immense. The problem gets even worse when there is a huge divisionism between disciplines. Look at the result of th survey to at least get a glimpse of what I am getting at here. Until all the disciplines involved begin to accept the fact that there is no significant difference in what they are trying to explain at their specific scale or layer of reference, then we should all kiss goodbye to any form of progress in this project!

What I am trying to say here is that if there is any difference whatsoever between disciplines, it is only by layer or scale of reference. Therefore, whatever conclusions that they derive at in their overall explantions of this same subject matter must inevitably reconcile both quantitatively and logically. There ought to be neither a metaphysically vexing remainder nor a quantitativelly and logically irreconcilable deficit in a mutidisciplinarily derived explanation of this subject matter. That would be the day!
 
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  • #876
The math is not difficult at all...

Matrix mechanics
DrDick said:
With regard to the issue of mathematics and simplicity, do you have any knowledge of matrix mechanics or matrix multiplication? I am wondering if I will have to teach you the subject as it comes up pretty quickly from where we are at the moment.
Aah. The basic concepts about matrix multiplication etc, I know. I did my bachelor electrical engineering (e.m. waves etc). I'll say it, if something is too difficult for me. I don't know a thing about Heisenberg's matrix mechanics. I forgot a lot about Schrödinger's equation. It was thrown at me in a course about semiconductor physics. :cry:

Probability theory
(Just as an aside, there is an individual out there who has some major difficulties with probability theory and is getting a reception roughly equivalent to the one I manage to generate with authorities. I have a strong suspicion his complaints are very rational.)
Interesting. And that's not Stephen Jay Gould in "Full house" I guess... :smile: Who is it? What is his/her message?

Dot product
Now add to the above the standard definition of a "dot" product of vectors (seen as a definition of a procedure) and the notation \vec{G}^\dagger \cdot \vec{G} results in a sum over a collection of positive real numbers which must be positive definite. Lastly, the sum over all possibilities (or the integral if the number of possibilities is infinite) must be greater than any sum (or integral) over any sub set of possibilities. It follows that

1 \geq <br /> \frac{ { \int \int \cdots \int \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} \, d^n x} }{ { { \int \int \cdots \int \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} \, d^n x} } }<br /> \geq 0​

so long as the denominator is summed (or integrated) over all possibilities.
I am clueless about what you're doing overhere. You defined an universal function: G, linking a list input numbers with a list results. You defined it's adjoint. Okay. And now you're defining a dot product of these functions. Does that have any meaning? And subsequently taking a volume integral. Does that mean anything? Or are that conventional mathematical tricks that always apply?
Recapitulation. Taken into consideration the tabel C we talked about. G does map the B's in that tabel to another tabel with a same amount of entries, but with only two columns (the real and imaginary part). The dot product between G and \vec{G}^\dagger does lead us to another tabel with one column. This column is integrated n times, each time over one of his (n) elements.

Psi function
If follows that, if one defines the function \vec{\Psi} via

\vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t) \equiv \frac{ \vec{G}(\vec{x},t) }{ { \sqrt{ \oint \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} dv} } }​

we can "define" the probability of the B_j to be given by

<br /> P(\vec{x},t) = \vec{\Psi}^\dagger(\vec{x},t)\cdot\vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t)dv<br />​

where dv \equiv d^n x.
Ah, there we have our old familiar P again. I don't know how you did achieve that. :eek: It's pretty if it's right. It's like Euler's formula connecting pi, e, and i in some magical way. o:) Can you explain why you did take a square root? Can you explain why the probability P is given by \vec{\Psi} and its adjoint? What kind of value is the denominator?

Rewriting the psi function
Finally, since we want to work with \vec{\Psi}, we need to re-express the relationships developed earlier in terms of the probability. The relationships already written may be rewritten as

<br /> \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\vec{\Psi}\,=\, i \kappa \vec{\Psi}\,\,\,and\,\,\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\vec{\Psi}\,=\, im\vec{\Psi}

This can be proved quite simply. The complex conjugates of the above expressions are,

<br /> \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\vec{\Psi}^\dagger\,=\, -i \kappa \vec{\Psi}^\dagger \,\,\,and\,\,\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\vec{\Psi}^\dagger\,=\, -im\vec{\Psi}^\dagger .
And this is quite difficult for me too. Is this matrix mechanics?

Result
This, together with the chain rule of calculus guarantees that any \vec{\Psi} which satisfies the above relations also satisfies the relation on the probability stated earlier. In the interest of saving space, I will show the result explicitly for the time derivative (the derivatives with respect to the arguments x_i go through exactly the same.

\frac{\partial}{\partial t}P(\vec{x},t)

=\,\, \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\vec{\Psi}^\dagger \right) \cdot \vec{\Psi}+\vec{\Psi}^\dagger \cdot<br /> \left( {\frac{ \partial}{ \partial t}} \vec{\Psi} \right)

=\,\, -im \vec{\Psi}^\dagger \cdot \vec{\Psi}+im \vec{\Psi}^\dagger \cdot \vec{\Psi}\,\,=\,\,0.​
And, yes, the result is that the derivative of P with respect to t is zero. And I trust you that the others will be zero as well. :smile: It's difficult for me to follow this, but I hope that I lack only a few basic physical or mathematical concepts. If you're not disappointed I hope you'll continue your lectures. :biggrin: See you soon!

Andy
 
  • #877
Philocrat said:
The tricky bit is logically reconciling all the underlying and related thoughts to derive at a generally acceptable conclusion.
Reconciling all the underlying and related thoughts? Isn't that "internal self consistency"?
Philocrat said:
... let alone come to a common conclusion.
We have lots of common conclusions; what is necessary is to expand that commonality. Find and expand agreements which are applicable to that underlying immense task.
Philocrat said:
The problem gets even worse when there is a huge divisionism between disciplines.
What you are talking about here is the extremely closed minded approach taken be all. Everyone wants their point of view to be the perspective in which the solution is to be expressed. (That doesn't require them to understand others.) :smile:
Philocrat said:
Until all the disciplines involved begin to accept the fact that there is no significant difference in what they are trying to explain[/color] at their specific scale or layer of reference, then we should all kiss goodbye to any form of progress in this project!
I could not agree more; and you might as well kiss the idea of progress goodbye. All we have going on here is a bunch of people stirring that pot of confused and ill defined concepts with the forlorn hope that some great solution will float to the top. They need to carefully examine those concepts and define exactly[/color] what they are trying to express. They might begin to see some of the problems with their ideas.
Philocrat said:
...whatever conclusions that they derive at in their overall explanations of this same subject matter must inevitably reconcile both quantitatively and logically.
Again, I agree with you completely.
Philocrat said:
There ought to be neither a metaphysically vexing remainder nor a quantitatively and logically irreconcilable deficit in a multidisciplinary derived explanation of this subject matter. That would be the day!
And the day could be at hand if egos could be laid aside and a little serious thought put into the problem. The problem with the reconciliation is the fundamental failure of these people to communicate. I say it has to do with the vagueness of the language they use and they all deny they are being vague and refuse to worry about the issue of definition at all. They all know there personal concepts are as clear as glass; why should they bother with definition?

They are all, within their own private "disciplines", attempting to find explanations of the things that interest them. So, if we are looking for multidisciplinary agreement, shouldn't our first concern be, "exactly what do you mean by 'an explanation'"? Apparently not. Everybody here seems to believe that they "know" exactly what is and is not an acceptable explanation". If they are correct, how come there is so much argument over the acceptability of each others "explanations"?

I have proposed an abstract mathematically exact definition of http://home.jam.rr.com/dicksfiles/Explain/Explain.htm in an attempt to expand that commonality in thought required and received not the first interest in examining the consequences of that definition. Do I get any discussion? No, what I get is, "That's not the correct definition!"[/color] (I wouldn't really mind if they gave me a good definition of what they think they are talking about; but they don't.) If the issue of explanation is not approached, how can anyone expect to achieve a multidisciplinary explanation of anything? I would like to talk about it if you are interested.

And, Andy, it is good to hear from you. I had about given up hope. You have asked some very good questions (with deeper significance than what might appear on the surface) and I want to think them over carefully as I answer. I will post a reply within the week.

Have fun -- Dick

Knowledge is Power
and the most common abuse of that power is to use it to hide stupidity
 
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  • #878
Can everything be explained using physics?

If you mean physics in it's present form that answer is absolutely not! But since physics is a growing discipline (it alters itself as new realities become apparent), you have to say that eventually the science will gain ground on the new realities.

But you have to wonder if it has any chance in some realms.

For example, do you remember the old hypothetical 2 dimensional world "Planeverse"? How could their science ever hope to describe our world, not to mention a 9th dimensional world.
 
  • #879
coanacl said:
For example, do you remember the old hypothetical 2 dimensional world "Planeverse"? How could their science ever hope to describe our world, not to mention a 9th dimensional world.
The answer to your question seems pretty clear to me. The answer is by mathematics and imagination.

First of all, if their "Planeverse" were curved so that the Pythagorean Theorem didn't apply everywhere, such as if part of their Planeverse was part of the surface of a 3D sphere, they would be able to detect this fact by 2D measurements of features of their world. This should give them the hint that there might be extra spatial dimensions that are inaccessible to them. Then they could use mathematics to deduce what type of 3D structures might be possible in a 3D world and how those structures might behave according to laws of physics that could also be inferred from mathematics.

I think this scenario should also apply to us. We know from direct measurements of our universe that it is curved. This should give us the hint that there might be extra inaccessible spatial dimensions (and I know of no cogent reason why those extra dimensions must be "curled up".) Next, I think we could make some progress if we investigated the constraints and possiblities for hyper-dimensional structures and processes using mathematics, and then looking for manifestations of those structures and processes that might be evident in our 3D world. This might be analogous, for example, to an inaccessible 3D object casting a shadow on the Planeverse which might be detectable by its inhabitants and which might reveal something about the 3D object.

Nine dimensions would be a lot harder, but we could start with four and proceed to five and work our way up. Or we could use suggestive features revealed by mathematics, such as the classification of finite groups, to suggest what might be a more fruitful approach.
 
  • #880
Paul Martin said:
The answer to your question seems pretty clear to me. The answer is by mathematics and imagination.

As I understand, it was Newton's imagination that first led him to consider the effects of gravity.

I agree that Planeverse residents would likely use their 2 dimensional mathematics to descibe the phemonena that they were observing, but it will likely be their inability to imagine the 3rd dimension that will limit the application of their science.
 
  • #881
saviourmachine said:
Aah. The basic concepts about matrix multiplication etc, I know.
Good, that's all you really need to know. If you know that, then everything else is really nothing more than logic (you can write out and look at the details of that multiplication). The really important aspect of matrix multiplication (in so far as physics is concerned: i.e., the reason we will want to use them) is that it is possible to construct "anti-commutating" matrices. Anti-commutation (a*b=-b*a) allows us to establish a very valuable "logical" relationships: i.e., we can define an expression (a symbol for something) consistent with the concept of multiplication where (ab-ba) is not zero. The true value of being able to do that is that it allows us to write some very complex relationships in a manner which appears[/color] to be simple. I don't know; could that be called the essence of "reductionism"? :smile: :smile: It seems to me that, if "reductionism" is expressing complex phenomena in simple terms, that is exactly what using "anti-commutation" is all about. I will make that clear a little further down the road.

Actually, when Dirac showed that "matrix mechanics" and "wave mechanics" were equivalent (leading to the notion that Dirac's "bra"-"ket" notation {this, < |, is a "bra" and this, | >, is a "ket"} expressed something fundamental about reality), the real essence of the thing is the ability to encompass mathematical expression of the phenomena (ab-ba) not being zero. In Dirac's notation that would be (|a><b| - <b|a>) not being zero. In his case, the symbols look quite different and confusion with ordinary "numbers" is impossible. But, as my interest is with the difference between what "really exists" and what "we presume exists", it is the relationship and the essence of reductionism which is important, not the notation.

That brings up mathematics. Mathematics is a language just like any other language (except for the care with which mathematicians have stripped it of inconsistencies). It has its grammar, syntax and vocabulary. The importance of a mathematical expression is the wide extent of rather exact communication. One should always remember that specialists in any field have a bad habit of developing "jargon" only understood by insiders (I think it's a ego protective measure) and specialty use of mathematics is as full of "jargon" as is any language. The "proper" notation is "jargon" and learning the proper "jargon" of a field is a waste of time if one fails to comprehend the essence of the concepts which gave rise to that "jargon". Sounding like you understand things is not equivalent to understanding them.
saviourmachine said:
I did my bachelor electrical engineering (e.m. waves etc). I'll say it, if something is too difficult for me. I don't know a thing about Heisenberg's matrix mechanics. I forgot a lot about Schrödinger's equation. It was thrown at me in a course about semiconductor physics. :cry:
The details of Heisenberg's matrix mechanics are not important at all unless one is interested in how the ideas of quantum mechanics arose historically. True relationships are seldom recognized by accident. One is usually led to them through examination of complex representations of things already known to be true. Once one begins to comprehend the structure of some complex representation, that structure itself often turns out to be a consequence of some simple ideas (reductionism again :smile: ).

Newtonian mechanics and calculus led to a long history of problem solving techniques and it was the attempt to standardize those techniques which eventually led to quantum mechanics. Just following that sequence and how ideas lead to other ideas is a fascinating study in itself. Every serious student should be taken through that development in detail just to understand how simplicity arises from complexity.
saviourmachine said:
Probability theory
Doctordick said:
Just as an aside, there is an individual out there who has some major difficulties with probability theory and is getting a reception roughly equivalent to the one I manage to generate with authorities. I have a strong suspicion his complaints are very rational.
Interesting. And that's not Stephen Jay Gould in "Full house" I guess... :smile: Who is it? What is his/her message?
His name is ThinhVanTran. I ran across him when I was surfing the web; I believe it was a post he made on one of the scientific forums hosted by Yahoo but I could be wrong as it was quite a while ago. He has a website at the link above. Since my work is a direct consequence of careful examinations of the process of obtaining valid expectations, I wanted to know exactly what his complaint was. After all, my work is essentially making an accurate estimate of probabilities (expectations) based on information without any knowledge of what the information represents (since "what it means" has to be derived from it and nothing else). So I took the trouble to get in touch with him.

He sent me a copy of his book and I corresponded with him for a while. I read his book very carefully and came to the conclusion that he may have something. I told him that his approach was wrong and that, if he wants to get his ideas published, he should lean on the experimental data and not worry about why it's wrong. Just show the details of his calculations and his assumptions and how the results differ from reality. Finish with the correction factor as a simple phenomenological correction. If others are having the same problem, the existence of the problem will become evident and others will use the correction factor. (He might tell them in an appendix how he came up with the correction but don't make a claim that it's the only explanation.) But he has already decided he knows where the problem is and wants everyone to recognize that he is right and they are wrong (actually, that sort of sounds like what people think I am doing :rolf:).

After reading his thesis, I was satisfied that it has no bearing on my work. Essentially what he says is that there is a constraint on the calculations which the professionals are not taking into account (having to do with the finite nature of reality). That constraint is that the probability calculations must agree with the historical results. Since the universe is finite, the historical results cannot contain some of those very very improbable possibilities. This fact skews the "correct" results away from the standard probability calculations. That is, the very probable events must be slightly more probable than probability theory says they are. He has created a correction factor based on that analysis and his calculated results agree with experience. The problem is that his correction looks too much like a phenomenological correction factor for some element being left out of his calculations and that is precisely the explanation the authorities jump to.

That doesn't bother me in the least as my whole attack is to find the consequences of requiring a "theory" to be consistent with the known information on a probabilistic basis. That is almost exactly the problem he is talking about. At any rate, I have been unable to sway him and his stuff will probably never be published. They won't publish him, instead they just tell him he is not doing his calculations correctly and that the distributions will never be exactly what he calculates anyway as that is the nature of probability. That is, "he's not an authority and can't possibly be correct". :biggrin:
Dot product
saviourmachine said:
I am clueless about what you're doing overhere. You defined an universal function: G, linking a list input numbers with a list results.
No, I didn't define any function at all. What I am doing is defining a way of representing a function (a notation or a symbol for a function). The central issue being that any and all conceivable functions can be so represented. The notation puts no constraint whatsoever on the function under discussion; the function itself is undefined, it is an unknown[/color]. "A is a function of B" means nothing more or less than the fact that, if B is known, A is known. Since anything can be represented by a set of numbers (a set of labels), both A and B can be seen as a set of numbers no matter what they are. In order to represent something significant, they must be properly defined; but, what is important here is that by approaching the issue in an abstract manner, we can put off the definition until later. The function is nothing except the answer to the question: if I have a specific B, what A do I have? The function (that specific answer) is "an unknown"; something we would like to know. It is thus a valid abstract representation of any question and its answer. Now don't confuse the words "valid" and "useful"; I said it was valid but I didn't say anything about its usefulness other than the accuracy of the abstract concept itself.
saviourmachine said:
You defined it's adjoint. Okay. And now you're defining a dot product of these functions. Does that have any meaning?
The process I am describing has only one purpose. The purpose is to define a universal representation of a procedure which will convert any arbitrary function into a function where A (the result) is a positive definite number. I do that because I want to express "expectations" (what I expect to be true). The point is that my expectations constitute something which can be represented by a probability: a positive definite number between zero and one. Except for magnitude (which is just a measure of size) the dot product I have defined always qualifies.

What I have shown is that any specific answer to any question which can be answered via a probability weighted yes/no answer can be represented by the dot product of \vec{\Psi} with its complex conjugate. That is, if a method of obtaining the answer exists, that method is a member of the set of all possible function. Obviously, if it isn't a member of the set of all possible functions, the method doesn't exist. If a method of answering the question doesn't exist, the question cannot be answered via any attack. What we are talking about is the problem of selecting the correct answer from the collection of all possible answers.
saviourmachine said:
And subsequently taking a volume integral.

1 \geq <br /> \frac{ { \int \int \cdots \int \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} \, d^n x} }{ { { \int \int \cdots \int \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} \, d^n x} } }<br /> \geq 0​
Note that the structure of the numerator and the denominator are exactly the same. The only thing which makes them different is the comment; "so long as the denominator is summed (or integrated) over all possibilities. What range the numerator is to be summed (or integrated) over is left open. Since the dot product is positive definite, the sum (or integral) is monotonically increasing real number no matter how the sum (or integral) is done. The expression can be interpreted as a probability of various "B's" (that collection of labels which define a specific answer). If that sum (or integral) is over all possibilities, the result is exactly one (the standard constraint on "probability").
saviourmachine said:
Does that mean anything? Or are they conventional mathematical tricks that always apply?
Not really. What I am doing is laying out a specific procedure for creating a functional relationship which can always be interpreted as a probability. What is important here is that no constraints of any kind have been placed on the underlying functional relationship (that unknown \vec{\Psi}). Again, if a method for obtaining those expectations exists, then a \vec{\Psi} which will yield them must exist. Actually, what I have just given you is not really a proof of that assertion; however, it is not difficult to construct a proof that the assertion is true. If you want the proof, let me know and I will lay it out for you in detail.
saviourmachine said:
Recapitulation. Taken into consideration the table C we talked about. G does map the B's in that table to another table with a same amount of entries, but with only two columns (the real and imaginary part). The dot product between G and \vec{G}^\dagger does lead us to another table with one column. This column is integrated n times, each time over one of his (n) elements.
I have a suspicion that you are a little confused. I am talking about two very different things here. The set C and its members B constitute what we want to explain. What I want to avoid doing is defining the elements of B as I want those definitions to be the best possible in light of that explanation which I do not yet have. That is why I am working in the abstract. I want to use numerical labels for those elements because I have a lot of those labels and they don't necessarily carry any inherent meaning. Notice that any meaning attached to the elements of B must be communicated via C anyway so there exists no reason to preemptively assign any meanings. Assigning a meaning is tantamount to claiming you know what you are talking about. Until you think you understand the problem and have some kinds of expectations, definition is pretty much a waste of time.

On the other hand, mathematics is a fairly well defined language. I can lay out specific procedures for manipulating numbers with a very strong assurance that the reader will obtain exactly the same results from that manipulation which I do. If knowledge of C (which is, by definition, a finite collection of B's) provides us with the information necessary to specify our expectations for any specific B then that knowledge will allow us to obtain those expectations from the labels which specify that B. That is, a function exists which will yield that result. That function must be a member of "all possible functions" so it must be representable by that unknown expression we are referring to as \vec{\Psi}.

saviourmachine said:
Psi function
Doctordick said:
If follows that, if one defines the function \vec{\Psi} via

\vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t) \equiv \frac{ \vec{G}(\vec{x},t) }{ { \sqrt{ \oint \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} dv} } }​

we can "define" the probability of the B_j to be given by

<br /> P(\vec{x},t) = \vec{\Psi}^\dagger(\vec{x},t)\cdot\vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t)dv<br />​

where dv \equiv d^n x.
Ah, there we have our old familiar P again. I don't know how you did achieve that.
It is nothing more or less than exactly what I said above. \vec{\Psi} is a magnitude adjusted version of \vec{G}, our unknown function. The dot product changes that into a simple positive definite number and the division by the sum (or integral) over \vector{G}^\dagger \cdot \vector{G} guarantees that, when we sum (or integrate) our probability over all possibilities (that is, sum or integrate the numerator), we get exactly one. You have to take a square root because the factor come into the calculation of probability twice: once from the \vec{\Psi}(\vec{x},t) and a second time from the \vec{\Psi}^\dagger(\vec{x},t).
saviourmachine said:
What kind of value is the denominator?
The denominator is an unknown number. It cannot be known until we establish exactly what that unknown G is. Remember, the output of G is defined to be a list of numbers and the dot product is defined to be the sum of the members of that list multiplied by their complex conjugate (which guarantees the result will be a sum of positive numbers which is a number). Since G can be any function, problems could possibly arise with the fact that the resultant number could be zero or infinity, but these are easily argued away as not really causing any difficulties at all. Again, if you need to have that demonstrated, I will do so in detail.
saviourmachine said:
Rewriting the psi function

And this is quite difficult for me too. Is this matrix mechanics?
No, it is just simple calculus. I am merely asserting that the solutions I quote are completely equivalent to the relationships developed earlier in terms of the probability. I then prove that statement by substituting the dot product for the probability and work out the differential via the chain rule. In order to do that, I have to know what the differential of the complex conjugate is. That is why I wrote them down specifically. The definition of the complex conjugate is nothing more than the original expression where all appearances of the imaginary number i is replaced with -i. Since the solutions I am asserting are complex entities, I need to know what the complex conjugate of the expressions are. The issue here is that requiring the differential of the probability to be zero is equivalent to requiring the differential of \vec{\Psi} to be proportional to i times the original function. When the chain rule is expanded out, the added terms cancel out.
saviourmachine said:
It's difficult for me to follow this, but I hope that I lack only a few basic physical or mathematical concepts.
I suspect that the biggest problem is that you are unfamiliar with the expressions I am writing down and you think there is supposed to be more than the obvious: i.e., you don't understand where I am going so the steps don't seem to be meaningful. If you still have questions about anything I have put down, please let me know. If all this makes sense to you, I will establish the final two steps and then pull all the diverse threads together.

I hope I have not run you off – Dick
 
  • #882
Can't even get started

I’ve got trouble with first principles of math and physics. I can't imagine physics without math - but I guess they did something like it long ago in Greece. I can imagine zero but I can’t find it in the real world. The same goes for infinity – is forever really something? And as for 1, I can hold, taste and see things that are similar but I’ve never found anything that is identical to something else. So you can see that I also have problems with 2 and equals and on and on…
However, my real problem is not how I can create an elaborate mathematics based on my creativity, but it’s when I impose these imaginary concepts on the real world, for some mysterious reason they seem to fit so well. In fact, my enthusiasm peaks every time I see a fractial fern leaf and it makes me ponder, that with hard work, it may be possible to describe everything with pure physics. But then I remember the essence of the leaf, its quality, and the old saying that existence precedes essence.
 
  • #883
Rob55 said:
I’ve got trouble with first principles of math and physics.
First principles of mathematics is an extremely esoteric subject. A lot of it is well beyond my understanding but I have managed to pull down an overall viewpoint which makes (to me at least) sense of their approach and their results (their jargon is often beyond my comprehension). I have come to define mathematics as the invention and study of internally consistent systems (systems being any collection of "things" together with set of rules involving those "things"). That definition is a statement of what I mean when I refer to mathematics. I only make that comment because I have found it impossible to achieve agreement on this forum. Everyone else seems to think that is not the definition of mathematics but none of them have told me what they think mathematics is so I am left holding the bag.

What I think most everybody misses (particularly people ignorant of mathematics) is that numbers are mere symbols for things and that the operations (addition, multiplication, integration, ...) are just sets of rules which have been shown to establish internally consistent systems.
Rob55 said:
I can't imagine physics without math - but I guess they did something like it long ago in Greece.
Well, physics is the study of reality. An attempt to explain our experiences. Now an internally inconsistent explanation is a pretty worthless thing. By definition, an internally inconsistent explanation is one which gives different answers depending on the specific path taken through the logic (that would be the supposed rules presumed by the explanation). In that case, it doesn't provide an answer so its purpose is defeated.

Now nobody wants an inconsistent explanation of anything but we none the less use them all the time. That's because it is often very difficult to prove an explanation is internally consistent. (You should note that, if you can prove it is an internally consistent structure, mathematicians will accept it as a branch of mathematics! Think about why Newton is credited with the invention of calculus.) It follows, as the night the day, that any field which can reduce its arguments to mathematics can establish at least some real support to the idea that their explanations are at least internally self consistent. One of the problems with modern physics is that a lot of it is compartmentalized. The individual fields may be internally consistent within the field of interest but it is often very difficult to make those different fields consistent with one another. The prime example of that difficulty is the conflict between quantum and general relativity. :wink:

The conflict between quantum and general relativity rears its ugly head in tachyons, collapse of the wave function, and the fundamental inability of the physics community to set off a correct general relativistic version of quantum mechanics. What I am trying to point out to you is the fact that there are still a lot of internally inconsistent explanations in physics: i.e., it is still not possible to reduce the whole to mathematics (an internally self consistent system).

The issue I am trying to get attention to is the fact that a self consistent explanation of anything[/color] can be seen as mathematics. If physics is an explanation of reality and anything which can be explained with an internally consistent set of rules (mathematics) will be absorbed into physics (as was electricity and magnetism, which was once thought to be inexplicable) then it follows that anything which can be explained can be explained by physics. Case closed, question answered. :cool:

It is the requirement that all explanations must be internally self consistent which needs to be examined carefully. I have done that and found some very interesting consequences which are apparently of little interest to anyone. You are new to the forum and I thought I would try to make myself clear. :smile:

Have fun -- Dick

Knowledge is Power
and the most common abuse of that power is to use it to hide stupidity
 
  • #884
Doctordick said:
It is the requirement that all explanations must be internally self consistent which needs to be examined carefully. I have done that and found some very interesting consequences which are apparently of little interest to anyone.
The evidence appears to be mounting that all our models of this universe are not necessarily internally self consistent... e.g., cpt violations.
 
  • #885
Chronos said:
The evidence appears to be mounting that all our models of this universe are not necessarily internally self consistent... e.g., cpt violations.


Experimentalists are of course eagerly looking for CPT violations, just as they eagerly look for any evidence beyond current theory. That's part of their job. But could you cite any reliable result where they have detected full CPT violation? I check the phenomenology section of the arxiv pretty frequently and I haven't seen anything. I mean here full CPT violation, not CP, which is old news ("parity violation") dating back to the 1950's with kaons and a great many observations recently with B particles (mesons containing a bottom quark).
 
  • #886
Hi selfAdjoint,

Note that, if their space time continuum hypothesis is erroneous, full CPT violation might be a possibility. In any case internal inconsistency is the death knell of any theory. The scientists generally avoid that particular consequence by compartmentalizing their theories. Thus they can say their theories are valid so long as you remain within the defining boundaries of the theory. A necessary cop-out as to refuse to accept anything but the final correct solution leaves them with nothing. A method of reckoning things is certain special conditions is a very valuable result; however, it's still a cop-out of a full valid explanation of what is going on. :-p

And Chronus, you are absolutely right. :smile: That is essentially what is meant by a TOE: an internally self consistent theory which is valid in all circumstances. And there are people who think we are close. -But they still won't pay any attention to me. - I just got a response from another "professional physicist" I managed to contact.
Dr Rainer Dick said:
I am very sorry, but after a look at the second website
you mentioned (Explain) I have to tell you that there is
certainly nobody with a degree in physics who could make
sense out of this.
To give you just one technical remark: It is easily possible
to write down the general solution of your four constraints
for the function Psi: it is Psi=0.

Besides this, your attempts are much more concerned
with the Philosophy of Science than with theoretical
physics. Therefore I would urge you to please study
Karl Popper's treatise on "The Logic of Scientific Discovery".

Best wishes,
Rainer Dick
http://physics.usask.ca/~dick/rainer.htm

Psi=0 is indeed a solution but it is certainly not a general solution[/color] by any stretch of imagination.

Competent is not a word I would use to describe him. :smile: :smile: :smile: And I am sorry if I am insensitive. :blushing:

Have fun -- Dick

Knowledge is Power
and the most common abuse of that power is to use it to hide stupidity
 
  • #887
Magnetic reversal/global warming

Doctor D, I appreciate your comments as they make sense. Maybe you could help me on my poser:
Interestingly, our Sun oscillates in and out of the plane of the galaxy (up and down) every 70 million years (approx.). Which means we pass through the Galactic mid-plane about every 35 million years. The number of cosmic rays which hit the Earth increases during the near hundred thousand years we are closest to the Galactic plane. What happens to Earth’s temperature during this transition through the mid-plane? Could one assume influence on Earth’s magnetic field as well?
Our Sun is located in a small spiral arm we call the Orion arm (or local arm) which is really a connection between the two nearest major spiral arms (Sagittarius and Perseus). We pass through a major spiral arm about every 100 million years taking about 10 million years to go through. During the transit, there would be a higher rate of ’nearby’ supernova and possible other ’environmental stresses’ which could alter the climate of Earth.
Simply put, as our Solar System travels in Galactic orbit there are many potential stresses we can speculate ‘cause and effect’ from. Along with our Sun there are approx. 400 billion other celestial bodies in the Milky way.
One Galactic orbit of our Solar System lasts between 220 and 240 million years (very approx.) There are so many variables anything is possible! I am spacifically interested in magnetic reversal and global warming. ...Bob sends...:-)
 
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  • #888
Bobby R said:
Doctor D, I appreciate your comments as they make sense. Maybe you could help me on my poser:
Interestingly, our Sun oscillates in and out of the plane of the galaxy (up and down) every 70 million years (approx.). Which means we pass through the Galactic mid-plane about every 35 million years. The number of cosmic rays which hit the Earth increases during the near hundred thousand years we are closest to the Galactic plane. What happens to Earth’s temperature during this transition through the mid-plane? Could one assume influence on Earth’s magnetic field as well?
Our Sun is located in a small spiral arm we call the Orion arm (or local arm) which is really a connection between the two nearest major spiral arms (Sagittarius and Perseus). We pass through a major spiral arm about every 100 million years taking about 10 million years to go through. During the transit, there would be a higher rate of ’nearby’ supernova and possible other ’environmental stresses’ which could alter the climate of Earth.
Simply put, as our Solar System travels in Galactic orbit there are many potential stresses we can speculate ‘cause and effect’ from. Along with our Sun there are approx. 400 billion other celestial bodies in the Milky way.
One Galactic orbit of our Solar System lasts between 220 and 240 million years (very approx.) There are so many variables anything is possible! I am spacifically interested in magnetic reversal and global warming. ...Bob sends...:-)
I agree with you. There are a lot of issues to take into account here but you are asking about their influence on the Earth's climate. That would be an issue to take up with experimentalists in the appropriate fields; however, as an opinion and nothing more (as these are issues I have never much worried about), I doubt very much that their influences would have a very large effect. In fact, it would be my suspicion that dust density changes would probably be the most important effect by intercepting solar radiation. :blushing:

Sorry I can't be more helpful -- Dick
 
  • #889
copenhagen interpretation

This is simply an age old debate famously argued by Neil Bohr and Einstein. I believe the quote was god does not "play dice." If string theory proves to have any validity then perhaps we will be able to break down the universe into mathimatical equations. The difficulty with such theories is they are very difficult to test experimentally. Although they do have plans to do so when the Large Hadron Collider is completed in France.
 
  • #890
Did some recent finding invalidate Gödel's incompleteness theorem?
 
  • #891
GSMichaels said:
This is simply an age old debate famously argued by Neil Bohr and Einstein. I believe the quote was god does not "play dice." If string theory proves to have any validity then perhaps we will be able to break down the universe into mathimatical equations. The difficulty with such theories is they are very difficult to test experimentally. Although they do have plans to do so when the Large Hadron Collider is completed in France.

"God does not Play Dice with the universe" metaphysically implies (1) the Originating (Creative) States, (2) the Intermediate (Transportational) States and (3) the Destinational (Perfect) States of reality or things are qauntitatively and logically equivalent regardless of time duration within and between states, regardless of how much fluctuations exist within and between states, and regardless of the variations or differences in the sum totality of all the laws involved. In other words: ORDER IS DECISIVELY CHAOS!
 
  • #892
Philocrat said:
How true is the claim that everything in the whole universe can be explained by Physics and Physics alone? How realistic is this claim? Does our ability to mathematically describe physical things in spacetime give us sufficient grounds to admit or hold this claim? Or is there more to physical reality than a mere ability to matheamtically describe things?

I'm going to revert to a statement I made on my thread "What is a law?" where I said something like "without the physical properties of a heart pumping blood to the brain and without the physical properties of the brain, there would be absolutely no "everything" to explain. Therefore, it is with great glee that I chime-in with those who voted for the premise that "everything can be explained with physics".

Whether or not the physics we speak of is explained in the language of mathematics or by way of actual physical examples or in layman's terms, physics and the laws of physics are the best way to explain everything we experience in the physical universe.

Besides, we are physical beings using our physical attributes to perceive a physcial state. Any attempt to understand the meta or non-physical states is done so with the physical attributes we have been born with... so... we still explain the "non-physical" or "spiritual" or "metaphyscial" states by way of physics and the laws held therein. We are somewhat bound to this state of physicalness by our own physical nature.

There are physics formula for Karma by some Russian physics dude. There is a wonderful physics formula for Ethics by John Adams.

I believe, wholeheartedly, that the most accurate method of describing or explaining a phenomenon and/or event/result is by way of physics for reasons I have already laid out here, in this thread.
 
  • #893
Please, can you give me an example!

Anti-commutation, Dirac, probability
Doctordick said:
Good, that's all you really need to know. If you know that, then everything else is really nothing more than logic (you can write out and look at the details of that multiplication). The really important aspect of matrix multiplication (in so far as physics is concerned: i.e., the reason we will want to use them) is that it is possible to construct "anti-commutating" matrices. Anti-commutation (a*b=-b*a) allows us to establish a very valuable "logical" relationships: i.e., we can define an expression (a symbol for something) consistent with the concept of multiplication where (ab-ba) is not zero.
...
Actually, when Dirac showed that "matrix mechanics" and "wave mechanics" were equivalent (leading to the notion that Dirac's "bra"-"ket" notation {this, < |, is a "bra" and this, | >, is a "ket"} expressed something fundamental about reality), the real essence of the thing is the ability to encompass mathematical expression of the phenomena (ab-ba) not being zero.
...
His name is ThinhVanTran.
Hi Doctordick, you do have a revealing way of describing things. The way you're talking about it, I "squink" that anti-commutation is a form of symmetry breaking.
I read just about Dirac's notation in "The Emperor's New Mind" by Penrose. I took a quick look for Van Tran's website, but the main introductionary article "http://www.thinhtran.com/probability.html" isn't online yet. By the way, it seems like he followed your advice:
Thinh van Tran said:
For communication-related reasons, I have de-emphasized my common-sense double book "The End of Probability and the New Meaning of Quantum Physics", in favor of a new edition, titled "Symmetry and the End of Probability", which is focused only on my analysis against the probability theory.
The notation :biggrin:
No, I didn't define any function at all. What I am doing is defining a way of representing a function (a notation or a symbol for a function). The central issue being that any and all conceivable functions can be so represented.
I beg you pardon. Indeed G is a notation for a function, and not a function in itself. Sorry, for my sloppiness. I agree with you that if you take G and its complex conjugate and subsequently the normalized volume integral, a probability factor between zero and one results.

I need a demonstration, but not about abstract details. It will help me very much if you could give a numerical example until the output of G: a list of numbers. And maybe even until the results of \vec{\Psi} and P. It doesn't matter for me that these numbers doesn't signify anything now, I only want to be sure that I understand the mathematics. I want to see the numbers and functions at work. When I read your texts it's like a description of a watch, without being able to see it at work. Please, can you do that for me?

See you next time!
 
  • #894
Dr.Yes said:
I'm going to revert to a statement I made on my thread "What is a law?" where I said something like "without the physical properties of a heart pumping blood to the brain and without the physical properties of the brain, there would be absolutely no "everything" to explain. Therefore, it is with great glee that I chime-in with those who voted for the premise that "everything can be explained with physics".

Whether or not the physics we speak of is explained in the language of mathematics or by way of actual physical examples or in layman's terms, physics and the laws of physics are the best way to explain everything we experience in the physical universe.

Besides, we are physical beings using our physical attributes to perceive a physcial state. Any attempt to understand the meta or non-physical states is done so with the physical attributes we have been born with... so... we still explain the "non-physical" or "spiritual" or "metaphyscial" states by way of physics and the laws held therein. We are somewhat bound to this state of physicalness by our own physical nature.

There are physics formula for Karma by some Russian physics dude. There is a wonderful physics formula for Ethics by John Adams.

I believe, wholeheartedly, that the most accurate method of describing or explaining a phenomenon and/or event/result is by way of physics for reasons I have already laid out here, in this thread.

But there are those who would argue (and quite rightly so) that even Cosmic Debris, let alone larger cosmological objects such as planets, comets and galaxies, are obeying comological laws of some sort. However, equally, that there are certain properties of the mind that do not exhibit or exemplify physical laws...that if at all there is a glimpse of luck that the mind is matter or a physical entity, certain properties of it lack physical exhibits.

The standard argument therefore is that if the Mind were a physical entity then all its properties, however mysterious, ought to be all reducible to physical, or at least pass a physical explanation. But as you may have observed so far on this thread (if you have had enough time to go throught it) several postings or arguments and counter-arguments clearly suggest that this is not really the case. There is a metaphysically vexing remainder still plaguing its explanation from one discipline to the next. You need to overthrow all these disputes with a coherent but generally accpetable argument.

NOTE: Remember, most importantly, that laws operate in all disciplines and the overall implication of this is that all the operating laws in each discipline ought to be analytically or explanatorily compatible with those in another discipline as one moves from one scale of reference or explanatory layer to the next. No half-measures or incomparirbility of any sort would surfice!
 
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  • #895
Philocrat said:
But there are those who would argue (and quite rightly so) that even Cosmic Debris, let alone larger cosmological objects such as planets, comets and galaxies, are obeying comological laws of some sort. However, equally, that there are certain properties of the mind that do not exhibit or exemplify physical laws...that if at all there is a glimpse of luck that the mind is matter or a physical entity, certain properties of it lack physical exhibits.

The standard argument therefore is that if the Mind were a physical entity then all its properties, however mysterious, ought to be all reducible to physical, or at least pass a physical explanation. But as you may have observed so far on this thread (if you have had enough time to go throught it) several postings or arguments and counter-arguments clearly suggest that this is not really the case. There is a metaphysically vexing remainder still plaguing its explanation from one discipline to the next. You need to overthrow all these disputes with a coherent but generally accpetable argument.

NOTE: Remember, most importantly, that laws operate in all disciplines and the overall implication of this is that all the operating laws in each discipline ought to be analytically or explanatorily compatible with those in another discipline as one moves from one scale of reference or explanatory layer to the next. No half-measures or incomparirbility of any sort would surfice!

Ah, thank you Philocrat. I must remember to adhere to protocol and to the scientific method even when I point out the obvious!

Several neurophysicists were summoned by the Pope and by the Dali Lama to explain the difference between the "mind" and the "brain".

The collection of international neurophysicists told these ambassadors (Dali and the late Pope) to the unknown, unseen and unfelt realms beyond the physical world that there is no difference between the mind and the brain.

What is true is that the brain is a collection of various, semi-plastic regions that deal with as many functions as are necessary to survive as a social and physical entity within the physical universe.

What was noted by the group of neuropsych, neuroscience and neurophysicists was that when you have a collection of anything, there is another, less discernable region that will develop that is often referred to as "the sum of the parts".

The sum of the parts appears mysterious and non-familiar to us because its roots come from many different regions and areas of disimilar function. The sum of the parts of the brain becomes the "mind" and its "thoughts".

I'm not sure what "metaphysically vexing remainder" the people discussing this question about "reducing everything to pure physics" are talking about, but, my guess is that it is this very thing that the Pope and the Lama were asking about. And, I calculate that it is simply the sum of the parts.

I maintain my position which is that, as a physically existent entity, I am unable to ascertain or understand anything beyond the physical universe... and so, therefore, I am, furthermore, bound to explain my experience by reducing everything to pure physics.

Part of the human condition is the bias and falacy of being physical .
 
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  • #896
A Law Runs Through It

Philocrat adds a "NOTE: Remember, most importantly, that laws operate in all disciplines and the overall implication of this is that all the operating laws in each discipline ought to be analytically or explanatorily compatible with those in another discipline as one moves from one scale of reference or explanatory layer to the next. No half-measures or incomparirbility of any sort would surfice!"

This is an "ought" statement. The reality is, (though no one has spent much time studying the reality), all law does run through all scale and layers of existence, they are sometimes unrecognizable as the same laws because of juxtopposing viewpoints ie: relative observations and the many matrixs through which the laws pass, gathering refinement and constantly changing (which is one of the more observable laws on any scale or level. eg. constant change).
 
  • #897
saviourmachine said:
Anti-commutation, Dirac, probability
Hi Doctordick, you do have a revealing way of describing things. The way you're talking about it, I "squink" that anti-commutation is a form of symmetry breaking.
I would need a much clearer discourse on what relationships you have in mind before I could address that issue. The question in my head is, what kind of symmetry are you speaking of? Remember, I have taken a somewhat abstract definition of symmetry which associates the symmetry with ignorance (symmetry breaking is then the removal of that ignorance). Here, if one wants to view anti-commutation as a symmetry breaking thing, the ignorance being removed must clearly be ignorance of the order of operation. I had never thought of it that way but I certainly think one could.

However, in my case I use it as a mathematical trick. I can use the fact of anti-commutation to make something quite complex look as if it is simple. Mathematically, it allows a quick bridge over complications which cannot otherwise be expressed succinctly. How that works will be quite clear to you when I get to it. I'll just let it lay for the moment.
saviourmachine said:
By the way, it seems like he followed your advice:
My last contact with him was in 2003 so I don't know what he is doing.
saviourmachine said:
I need a demonstration, but not about abstract details. It will help me very much if you could give a numerical example until the output of G: a list of numbers. And maybe even until the results of \vec{\Psi} and P. It doesn't matter for me that these numbers doesn't signify anything now, I only want to be sure that I understand the mathematics. I want to see the numbers and functions at work. When I read your texts it's like a description of a watch, without being able to see it at work. Please, can you do that for me?
Well, we are working in the abstract for the very simple reason that the abstract can cover very easily a range of things which cannot even be conceived in the particular. First, my purpose in writing G as I did (a given set of numbers producing a second set of numbers), is that absolutely any "functional relationship" can be so expressed. I do not want my notation to place any constraints on what G is.

Let us for the sake of argument (and I am sure this one will create some arguments :biggrin: ) an example of the following kind. One might say that, "the kind of woman a man might fall in love with" is a function of "his ancestry, his culture, his experiences, his social standing, his wealth, his education, his circumstance and maybe a few more things I can't think of at the moment". Now, if it is possible to establish that such a relationship (that is, if a way of determining the answer) exists, then it can be expressed by my notation of G.

All one has to do is make a table (quite a big table admittedly) in the following manner. First, one has to establish the argument of the function! We begin with an exact description of every man on Earth ("his ancestry, his culture, his experiences, his social standing, his wealth, his education, his circumstance and maybe a few more things I can't think of at the moment"). Now convert every element of that description into numbers (for the fun of it, use the binary representation of the Internet packets necessary to communicate the information). We now have the argument of G as a list of numbers.

The next step is get a relevant description of every possible woman on earth. We then establish a library of those descriptions, giving each description a unique library number.

Now we can make that table. Down the left side of the table is the complete list of those exact descriptions we created (all possible arguments of G), each particular entry being a set of numbers (the description itself).

Now we go to the person who knows how to find the answer (remember I said, "if a way of determining the answer exists") and ask them what the answer is for each man on Earth and enter the library numbers which identify the girls that man might fall in love with. When we finish filling out the table, our G is defined (at least for all the men that actually exist).

The point being that any relationship which can be described can be so represented. Even if we cannot do it, we know that if it is ever done, the result can be represented by my notation. The notation is absolutely general and no functional relationship is omitted.

So let's step off in the direction of that probability. Instead of asking for the list of women he might fall in love with, let us ask the probability of two people falling in love. Now the argument of G becomes the descriptions of the two people we are asking about and the entry of the table is the probability. We go to the person who knows how to find the answer and make an entry for that probability. When we finish the table, we have the probability function we were looking for.

Our problem in this case is that the notation is not absolutely general. In our analysis of the problem (since we are working in the abstract) we need to get rid of the problem of making sure the collection of functions we go to examine do indeed satisfy that constraint that they be real and bounded by zero and one. Certainly the "absolutely general" G is not properly limited (there exist a whole lot of G's which can't possibly be right because the end result of using them yields something else). However, the normalization method I showed (of the internal or "dot" product) guarantees the final result will be interpretable as a probability. This means that either the correct G exists in the set of all G's or, if it doesn't, the answer can not be found by any method.

I am off to China and won't be back until October so you can all think this over while I am gone.

Have fun -- Dick


Knowledge is Power
and the most common abuse of that power is to use it to hide stupidity
 
  • #898
Dr.Yes said:
Ah, thank you Philocrat. I must remember to adhere to protocol and to the scientific method even when I point out the obvious!

Several neurophysicists were summoned by the Pope and by the Dali Lama to explain the difference between the "mind" and the "brain".

The collection of international neurophysicists told these ambassadors (Dali and the late Pope) to the unknown, unseen and unfelt realms beyond the physical world that there is no difference between the mind and the brain.

What is true is that the brain is a collection of various, semi-plastic regions that deal with as many functions as are necessary to survive as a social and physical entity within the physical universe.

What was noted by the group of neuropsych, neuroscience and neurophysicists was that when you have a collection of anything, there is another, less discernable region that will develop that is often referred to as "the sum of the parts".

The sum of the parts appears mysterious and non-familiar to us because its roots come from many different regions and areas of disimilar function. The sum of the parts of the brain becomes the "mind" and its "thoughts".

I'm not sure what "metaphysically vexing remainder" the people discussing this question about "reducing everything to pure physics" are talking about, but, my guess is that it is this very thing that the Pope and the Lama were asking about. And, I calculate that it is simply the sum of the parts.

I maintain my position which is that, as a physically existent entity, I am unable to ascertain or understand anything beyond the physical universe... and so, therefore, I am, furthermore, bound to explain my experience by reducing everything to pure physics.

Part of the human condition is the bias and falacy of being physical .

Yes, you are substantially right in some of your observations. You hit it right on the head by rasing a very fundamental metaphysical problem, which in the process chain-reacts into epistemological, logical and quantitative problems. Metaphysically, the "sum of parts" is treated as a single, self-standing and self-identifying category that should never at any point in our overall calculus confuse with its equally underlying self-accountable parts. In many disciplines, people tend to muddle things up when they are trying to shift or reduce from parts to a whole. What I have come to realize and notice over the years is that a 'PART-WHOLE Reductionism' naturally manifests into multiple-layer of reductionism. If you turn into mathematics, you could look at it as sets within sets in a downward movement from larger scales to ever smaller scale.

Ok, to appreciate a glimpse of what I am trying to explain here, ask the following experts in their respective disciplines to define the term "PERSON":

1) A Biologist

2) A Chemist

3) A Physicist

How would these experts define it without running into what is generally known in Metaphysics as 'Category Error'. Yes, I do agree with those who define this sort of term in their own disciplines with all the relevant or governing laws applied. But the fact remains that they must also think about how the same term would be defined in another discipline down the explanatory scale. The content of this thread so far seems to suggest that physics has the last word in every definable term or subject matter. Do you accpet this as wholly true? Or do you take the whole project as beyond the realm of physics as is often suggested in some of the disciplines? Are all definitions of a given term or subject matter compatible in all disciplines? Is the notion of a person in physics compatible with the notion of a person in, say, Biology, Chemistry, Psychology or Religion? Do we have a multi-disciplinarily derived definion of a Person?
 
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  • #899
Philocrat said:
Yes, you are substantially right in some of your observations. You hit it right on the head by rasing a very fundamental metaphysical problem, which in the process chain-reacts into epistemological, logical and quantitative problems. Metaphysically, the "sum of parts" is treated as a single, self-standing and self-identifying category that should never at any point in our overall calculus confuse with its equally underlying self-accountable parts. In many disciplines, people tend to muddle things up when they are trying to shift or reduce from parts to a whole. What I have come to realize and notice over the years is that a 'PART-WHOLE Reductionism' naturally manifests into multiple-layer of reductionism. If you turn into mathematics, you could look at it as sets within sets in a downward movement from larger scales to ever smaller scale.

Ok, to appreciate a glimpse of what I am trying to explain here, ask the following experts in their respective disciplines to define the term "PERSON":

1) A Biologist

2) A Chemist

3) A Physicist

How would these experts define it without running into what is generally known in Metaphysics as 'Category Error'. Yes, I do agree with those who define this sort of term in their own disciplines with all the relevant or governing laws applied. But the fact remains that they must also think about how the same term would be defined in another discipline down the explanatory scale. The content of this thread so far seems to suggest that physics has the last word in every definable term or subject matter. Do you accpet this as wholly true? Or do you take the whole project as beyond the realm of physics as is often suggested in some of the disciplines? Are all definitions of a given term or subject matter compatible in all disciplines? Is the notion of a person in physics compatible with the notion of a person in, say, Biology, Chemistry, Psychology or Religion? Do we have a multi-disciplinarily derived definion of a Person?

Hello Philocrat,

thank you for your effort to understand my position concerning the explanation of all phenomena by way of the laws and properties of physics (pure or not!). It must have been quite an effort since I am a rambling idiot when it comes to physics who does his best to avoid oppoprium and inappropriate use of inappropriate language... in other words, I should just keep my mouth shut... most of the time!.:devil:

The definition of any word is of the uttmost importance to any discussion. It must be agreed upon by all parties concerned. The root of the word must be exposed and thouroghly agreed upon as well. This can take years of research or, with any luck, the word will have been studied already by linguists and already documented with regard to where the word hails from.

"Person" is a patriarchial term describing a succession of sons per son per son... if I'm not mistaken. I don't think any daughters on the team of those responding to the question about the word would or should appreciate any other definition of the word.

But, that is the physical origin of the word. That is explaining the word by way of its physical origin.

What it means to each person from each discipline is insignificant and trivial and the fodder of drama-queens.

Personally I would immediately steer the multidisciplinary committee toward the word "people" and hope there would be a more universal origin for this word rather than the utterings of one gender's group of scallywags!

I look forward to further discussion on this topic.

What's more is, as a physical being... being physical... there's no way in hell my bias will allow me to understand anything beyond the physical. The sum of my physical parts will only add up to a notion that could be right or could be wrong... 50/50 odds do not a right make. That's called leaving it to chance. Very unscientific. Very misleading. Exploration is the key but, hey, Columbus thought he made it to China.
 
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  • #900
Dr. Yes, I find you discussion very interesting. Your texts are touching an angle that many people tend to ignore: 'Inter-disciplinary Definitition of terms of reality'. Your last posting raises two fundamental questions:

(1) Is every discipline's definition of a given term of reality as good as any?

(2) Should every discipline be content with its own definition and altogether steer clear of other disciplines? What goes on elswhere is not my stew!

Ask me whether I know the answers to these questions and I would immediately reply :"your guess is as good as mine!". Yes, I don't know the answers, yet these are serious unavoidable questions that must be confronted head on with utmost rigour and honesty. I find it difficult to disagree with those who stay content with definitions of these terms in their respective disciplines. Do you contemplate or see otherwise?
 
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