Can F_1,2 Be Defined Using r-hat_2,1 Instead of r-hat_1,2?

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F_1,2 can indeed be defined using r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2, provided that the opposite directions of the vectors are considered. The discussion emphasizes the importance of directionality in vector definitions. This approach is valid as long as the necessary adjustments for direction are made. The consensus is that flexibility exists in defining forces as long as the underlying principles of vector representation are respected. Overall, the interchangeability of r-hat vectors is affirmed with proper consideration of their orientations.
Ryan McParlan
In this example (https://imgur.com/a/pTFIt) could i define F_1,2 in terms of r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2?
 
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Ryan McParlan said:
In this example (https://imgur.com/a/pTFIt) could i define F_1,2 in terms of r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2?
Sure, why not? As long as you take into account that they have opposite directions.
 
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