dimitri151
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I saw this problem on this site a while back and started to think about it. I can't find the post so I'll start it anew. The problem is: can you have two disjoint sets dense on an interval so that the measure of each set on any interval of that interval is equal? That is, say you have A, B in [0,1] A(intersection),B=emptyset, are there such sets A and B so that if you take x<y, x,y in [0,1], m(A(intersection)[x,y])=m(B(intersection)[x,y])?
If you let An={x in [0,1] : x's binary expansion has a zero in the nth place }, then you can show that for any epsilon there is a pos integer N such that m(An(intersection)[x,y])-m(~An(intersection)[x,y])<epsilon when n>=N.
However this isn't equality. Furthermore what I'd really like to say is the required set A is limn->infinityAn. Only, I'm not sure what {x in [0,1] : x's binary expansion has a zero in the infinitieth place} means. That doesn't mean anything. So how does one proceed?
If you let An={x in [0,1] : x's binary expansion has a zero in the nth place }, then you can show that for any epsilon there is a pos integer N such that m(An(intersection)[x,y])-m(~An(intersection)[x,y])<epsilon when n>=N.
However this isn't equality. Furthermore what I'd really like to say is the required set A is limn->infinityAn. Only, I'm not sure what {x in [0,1] : x's binary expansion has a zero in the infinitieth place} means. That doesn't mean anything. So how does one proceed?