Arctic said:
Why is it that when say 2 violins are playing the same tune at the same time, there is never any destructive interference and no sound is heard?
Let me describe what it would take to get destructive interference in the case of acoustics.
Take a tone generator or a synthesizer, any thing that generates a clean signal. Feed the electric signal to two speakers. Connect one speaker correctly, and connect the other with swapped wires.
If you connect both speakers correctly, then they will vibrate in phase; they will move back an forth in unison.
If one speaker is connected correctly, and the other with swapped wires, then the speaker's vibrations will be in counter motion. It's the opposite of being in phase, and it's called 'being out of phase'.
(Incidentally, there is in fact no "correct" or "incorrect" here. If for
both speakers the wires are swapped then the sound will be perfectly fine too. It's just that how you wire one speaker must match the other one.)
If you place the speakers very close together then at a sufficiently large distance from the speakers there will be complete destructive interference.
In the case of two violins there are several factors working against any possible destructive interference.
As pointed out in an earlier reply, since two violins are separate sources it is extremely unlikely for the sound produced to be precisely out of phase.
Also the sound of violins is extremely rich in higher harmonics, which again reduces the likelyhood of destructive interference enormously.