Recently I read about Cauchy-Riemann equations and I got a doubt in that.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I can understand the derivation of it but I couldn't understand the basic assumption with which you derive that.

Why should the limit give the same value for both real and for imaginary axis?

I hope you can understand the question. If you can't understand the question just reply.

Thanks a lot

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Cauchy-Riemann equation

Loading...

Similar Threads - Cauchy Riemann equation | Date |
---|---|

I Validity of proof of Cauchy-Schwarz inequality | Nov 23, 2016 |

A Question on Cauchy-Schwarz inequality | Oct 3, 2016 |

Cauchy Schwarz equality implies parallel | Nov 8, 2015 |

Cauchy-Schwartz inequality | Nov 4, 2015 |

I'm trying to write a program that plots the riemann zeta function | Mar 26, 2013 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**