songoku said:
i'm still a bit confused about the direction of friction.
i think the direction of friction will also determine the value of \omega
based on royalcat's picture, the direction of friction is upwards. In case i take the direction of friction is downwards, i think it will give a different value of \omega
thx
That's just a work assumption.
Developing the equations derived from the FBD, and assuming the direction of friction is unknown, we arrive at the following:
\frac{g}{r} \frac {\sin{\theta}\mp \mu \cos{\theta}}{\cos{\theta}\pm \mu \sin{\theta}}=\omega ^2
The right side has to be positive, because it is a squared expression. So the left side has to be positive as well. That leads to either of two conditions.
(The plus/minus, minus/plus, signs are determined in the following way:
If you choose to assume that the friction is up the incline, use the top sign, if you choose the opposite, then use the bottom sign)
If we assume that the friction is up the incline, then we arrive at the following conclusion: \mu _s < \tan {\theta} which means that the mass would be slipping down if it were not for the rotation.
If we assume that the friction is down the incline, then we arrive at the following conclusion:
\mu _s < \cot {\theta}
Based on \mu _s, \tan {\theta} and \cot {\theta}
We'll make or decision on where to point our friction.
But even if we were to choose incorrectly at first, all that would get us would be a negative value for \omega ^2
That would let us know that something is wrong with our premises, and since the only place where we have any lee-way is the choice of the sign of friction (Representing its direction) all we would need to do to rectify our poor work assumption would be to substitute \mu _s for -\mu _s and all would be right with the world once more. :3
Don't mention it. :) It's an interesting problem and I was happy to help with it.