Change in relativistic momentum

kurious
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Is it alright to say that force = rate of change of relativistic momentum

F = [ m0 v2 / (1 - v2^2/c^2)^1/2 - m0 v1/(1 - v1^2/c^2)^1/2 )] / (t2 - t1)

and can this relation be used to get sensible results for particles?
 
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kurious said:
Is it alright to say that force = rate of change of relativistic momentum

F = [ m0 v2 / (1 - v2^2/c^2)^1/2 - m0 v1/(1 - v1^2/c^2)^1/2 )] / (t2 - t1)

and can this relation be used to get sensible results for particles?
Thats close to ordinary force f. To be precise ordinary force f involves the limit of that as t2-t1 becomes infinitesimal dt in a calculus limit. Also, you shouldn't subscript the mass with a zero as it is invariant.
 
DW is right, your notation is wrond. You must let t2-t1 approach 0, it must be alimit.
Here is the wau you want to write it:

F = \frac {d(\frac{mv}{\sqrt{1-v^2 / c^2}})}{dt}
 
Yes, but in general, you gain nothing in writing the differential equation in terms of velocity. Just leave it in momentum; equations are far simpler.
 
kurious said:
Is it alright to say that force = rate of change of relativistic momentum..
Yes. Force is defined as

\bold F = \frac{d\bold p}{dt}
F = [ m0 v2 / (1 - v2^2/c^2)^1/2 - m0 v1/(1 - v1^2/c^2)^1/2 )] / (t2 - t1)

and can this relation be used to get sensible results for particles?
That is the average force. The instantaneous force is F = dp/dt.

Pete
 
pmb_phy said:
Yes. Force is defined as

\bold F = \frac{d\bold p}{dt}
That is the average force. The instantaneous force is F = dp/dt.

Pete
Just to be clear to you, in light of the notation having been used here for a while, it is an expression for ordinary force f, not the four-vector force F.
 
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