Check differentiability in function

Sux
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Homework Statement



Hello, I can't find any way to prove if this funtion is or isn't differentiable in if (x,y)=(0,0) :
{f(x,y)=\displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}} if (x,y) \neq(0,0)

f(x,y)=0 if (x,y)=(0,0)


The Attempt at a Solution



Partial derivatives don't exist in (0,0), so i have calculate definition of differentiability, and i get:

\displaystyle\lim_{x,y \to{0,0}}{} \displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{(x^{2}+y^{2})^{3/2}}

Which limit doesn't exit, so it is not differentiable in (0,0).

Is this right?

Thanks!
 
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If we approach the origin along the x-axis, we find that the limit is 0. But if we approach the origin along the curve y = x^(3/2), the limit is 1. Hence the function is not continuous at the origin, which of course means it's not differentiable there.

If you were trying to apply the definition of the partial derivative to show non-differentiability at (0,0), then the approach would fail since this is an example of a function which has a directional derivative in every direction at the origin (and of course partial differentiability is the specific case where the unit vector in the definition of the directional derivative is taken to be a standard basis vector). You should demonstrate this.
 
snipez90 said:
If we approach the origin along the x-axis, we find that the limit is 0. But if we approach the origin along the curve y = x^(3/2), the limit is 1. Hence the function is not continuous at the origin, which of course means it's not differentiable there.

That isn't correct. You may be thinking of the limit as x goes to infinity, not zero. The function is continuous at (0,0).

To the OP: Try looking at the partial fy along y = 0 and y = x.
 
Sorry you're right, I was thinking about infinity; the epsilon and deltas check out. Incidentally, I found an error in my untested lecture notes.

As for your hint, presumably you want to show that the partial derivative of y is not continuous at (0,0), but this doesn't guarantee non-differentiability right? The theorem that all the partial derivatives of a function exist and are continuous implies differentiability does not have a converse, as can be demonstrated via the following function:

\[ f(x,y) =\begin{cases}x^2\sin(\frac{1}{x}) + y^2 &amp;\text{if }x \neq 0 \\<br /> y^2 &amp;\text{if }x = 0 \end{cases} \]
 
Yes, you're correct about the converse. On looking at it a bit more I think it is differentiable at (0,0). One can calculate fx(0,0) and fy(0,0) then check the condition for differentiability:

f(0+h,0+k) - f(0,0) = f_x(0,0) h + f_y(0,0)k +\varepsilon_1h + \varepsilon_2k

where ε1 and ε2 → 0 as h and k → 0 directly by writing it out.
 
Sorry I said partial derivatives don't exist, I wanted to say they are not continuous in (0,0).

LCKurtz said:
To the OP: Try looking at the partial fy along y = 0 and y = x.

I have calculated f_{y} and it is not continuous in (0,0).

How can you calculated the condition for differentiability that have written?


Thanks!
 
Sux said:

Homework Statement



Hello, I can't find any way to prove if this funtion is or isn't differentiable in if (x,y)=(0,0) :
{f(x,y)=\displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}} if (x,y) \neq(0,0)

f(x,y)=0 if (x,y)=(0,0)


The Attempt at a Solution



Partial derivatives don't exist in (0,0), so i have calculate definition of differentiability, and i get:

\displaystyle\lim_{x,y \to{0,0}}{} \displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{(x^{2}+y^{2})^{3/2}}

Which limit doesn't exit, so it is not differentiable in (0,0).

Is this right?

Thanks!

This function is both continuous and differentiable at (0,0). o But let's check these two conditions:

1- Continuity: since the numerator x3 in {f(x,y)=\displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}} tends to zero faster than the denominator, so \displaystyle\lim_{x,y \to{(0,0)}}{} \displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}} = 0 and by f(0,0)=0, this condition is met by our function.

2- Differentiablity: first start with the derivative of {f(x,y)=\displaystyle\frac{x^{3}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}} wrt x and after calculating it, find the value for (x=\epsilon,y=0). Repeat this calculation for y and then substitute (x=0,y=\epsilon) in the result. This value must match the preceding one and of course f'(x=0,y=0) which is clearly zero from the second part of the definition of f(x,y), BUT IT DOESN'T.

[Edit]: fx(\epsilon,0) = 1 so it does not match fy(0,\epsilon)=0 and therefore the function is NOT differentiable at (0,0). For a better understanding of why this condition does not hold for f, see its graph:

http://img149.imageshack.us/img149/627/plotg.jpg

Sounds like we have a cusp there.


AB
 
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LCKurtz said:
Yes, you're correct about the converse. On looking at it a bit more I think it is differentiable at (0,0). One can calculate fx(0,0) and fy(0,0) then check the condition for differentiability:

f(0+h,0+k) - f(0,0) = f_x(0,0) h + f_y(0,0)k +\varepsilon_1h + \varepsilon_2k

where ε1 and ε2 → 0 as h and k → 0 directly by writing it out.

Sux said:
Sorry I said partial derivatives don't exist, I wanted to say they are not continuous in (0,0).



I have calculated f_{y} and it is not continuous in (0,0).

How can you calculated the condition for differentiability that have written?


Thanks!

The first step is to calculate fx and fy at (0,0). I get that fx(0,0)=1 and fy(0,0)=0; you can check this. Then substituting everything into the equation:

<br /> f(0+h,0+k) - f(0,0) = f_x(0,0) h + f_y(0,0)k +\varepsilon_1h + \varepsilon_2k<br />

gives:

\frac {h^3}{h^2+k^2} = 1h + 0k + \varepsilon_1h + \varepsilon_2k

Solve this for the epsilon terms:

\varepsilon_1h + \varepsilon_2k = \frac {h^3}{h^2+k^2} -h= \frac{hk^2}{h^2+k^2}= 0h+\left(\frac{hk}{h^2+k^2}\right)k

That will do it if you can show

lim_{(h,k)\rightarrow(0,0)}\frac{hk}{h^2+k^2} = 0

Can you take it from there?

[Edit] And then again, maybe that doesn't go to zero :frown:
 
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