majesticman
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I am going to provide my answer to a complex integral and i was just seeking a few pointers as to weather i was on the right track or was there something i completely forgot...happens quite a bit...lol
\oint exp(z+(1/z)) around the path \left |z|\right=1
now i converted that to a Laurent series...to get
\sum ^{inf} _{0} (1/n!) (z+(1/z))^n
then using the residue theorem i can have that the integral is equal to 2*pi*i given that b1=1 for taking the series around z=0
am i right?
\oint exp(z+(1/z)) around the path \left |z|\right=1
now i converted that to a Laurent series...to get
\sum ^{inf} _{0} (1/n!) (z+(1/z))^n
then using the residue theorem i can have that the integral is equal to 2*pi*i given that b1=1 for taking the series around z=0
am i right?