Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Classical Perturbation Theory-Time Dep. vs. Time Indep (Goldstein).

  1. Jun 25, 2012 #1
    Classical Perturbation Theory--Time Dep. vs. Time Indep (Goldstein).


    I'm going through Goldstein, and I'm a little confused on the distinction between time dependent and time independent perturbation theory. In section 12.2, they do the case of a simple harmonic perturbation on force free motion. I would have thought that the perturbation [itex]\Delta H = \frac{m\omega^2 x^2}{2}[/itex] would not be considered time-dependent. Is the key that when you plug in the unperturbed solution for x, i.e., [itex]\frac{\alpha t}{m} + \beta[/itex], the perturbation hamiltonian is now time-dependent?

    If so, it would seem that the example they treat in the section on time-independent perturbation theory, the anharmonic oscillator with [itex]\Delta H = \frac{\epsilon m^2 \omega_0^2 q^3}{q_0}[/itex], could also have been treated as a time-dependent problem.

    Any insight would be appreciated! Thanks!

  2. jcsd
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Can you offer guidance or do you also need help?
Draft saved Draft deleted