- #1
Descartz2000
- 139
- 1
If a coin were to be flipped 1 million times, the probability of landing on heads or tails would be very close to 50%. It seems the initial conditions of the coin and the coins interaction with with the environment would 'dictate' each outcome. Due to the variety of initial conditions of each coin toss, it seems both outcomes (when speaking of large #'s of trials) are dictated equally because neither side is favored. So, then can I assume randomness or 'pseudo-randomness', in principle, is based on an equal distribution of outcomes?