Complex conjugate of a pole is a pole?

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The discussion centers on whether the complex conjugate of a pole, ##r^*##, is also a pole of the function ##f##, given that ##r## is a simple pole. It is clarified that ##-r## is not the complex conjugate of ##r## unless ##r## is purely imaginary. The example of the function $$f(z)=\frac{1}{(z-i)(z+i)^2}$$ is provided to illustrate that not all roots or poles behave the same way. The participants also note that if ##g(z)## is a polynomial with real coefficients, then the roots appear in conjugate pairs. The conversation highlights the complexities of defining poles in the context of complex functions and their conjugates.
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Homework Statement
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This isn't a homework problem, but a more general question.

Let ##f## be a function with two singular points ##r## and its complex conjugate ##r^*##.

let
$$f=\frac{g}{z-r} \quad \text{and assume} \quad g(r)\neq 0$$
so ##r## is a simple pole of ##f##.

we have conjugates that are singular points of ##f##,
can we say that ##r^*## is also a simple pole of ##f## because it is a complex conjugate of ##r##? if so, what property of complex functions can we invoke to avoid doing the same calculations for ##r^*##?
 
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Why are you defining u?? But OK
The function $$f(z)=\frac 1 {z^2-a^2} $$ has poles at $$z=\pm a $$ This is a characteristic of the function and is not generally true.
 
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Likes Keith_McClary and docnet
. -r is not the complex conjugate of r in most cases.

And I think ##f=\frac{1}{(z-1)(z+1)^2}## satisfies your post but does not have a simple pole at both roots.
 
docnet said:
can we say ##-r## is also a simple pole of ##f## because it is a complex conjugate of ##r##?
##-r## is not the complex conjugate of ##r## unless ##r## is purely imaginary.
docnet said:
if so, what property of complex functions can we invoke to avoid doing the same calculations for ##-r##?
If ##g(z)## is a polynomial with real coefficients and ##r## is a root, then ##\bar {r}## is also a root.

PS. I assume that you are using '##r##' to designate a root rather than a real
 
No. If you insist -r is the complex conjugate of r then r is imaginary, so let's say ##r=i##. Then consider
##f(z)=\frac{1}{(z-i)(z+i)^2}##
 
that makes sense. sorry, think i was confusing this with the case of real valued functions always having complex valued roots in conjugate pairs. my brain is not working its best tdaoy
 
First, I tried to show that ##f_n## converges uniformly on ##[0,2\pi]##, which is true since ##f_n \rightarrow 0## for ##n \rightarrow \infty## and ##\sigma_n=\mathrm{sup}\left| \frac{\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x\right)}{n^{x^2-3x+3}} \right| \leq \frac{1}{|n^{x^2-3x+3}|} \leq \frac{1}{n^{\frac 34}}\rightarrow 0##. I can't use neither Leibnitz's test nor Abel's test. For Dirichlet's test I would need to show, that ##\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x \right)## has partialy bounded sums...

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