travis0868
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When is the following true?
f(lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\ g_{n}(x)) =
lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\ f(g_{n}(x))
Does anyone know of a textbook that discusses this?
f(lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\ g_{n}(x)) =
lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\ f(g_{n}(x))
Does anyone know of a textbook that discusses this?