- #1
Ravi Mohan
- 196
- 21
I am studying an article http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9907069 and having some problems understanding it.
Is self adjointness of an operator a sufficient or necessary and sufficient requirement for its eigen vectors with the generalized eigenvectors (i don't know what are these) to form complete set? I want to read the proof too. The references include German texts which are not accessible for me right now.
P.S I have tried googling but couldn't find the answer.
Francois Gieres said:If the Hilbert space operator A is self-adjoint, then its spectrum is real [6, 8][13]-[18] and the eigenvectors associated to different eigenvalues are mutually orthogonal; moreover, the eigenvectors together with the generalized eigenvectors yield a complete system of (generalized) vectors of the Hilbert space4 [19, 20, 8].
Is self adjointness of an operator a sufficient or necessary and sufficient requirement for its eigen vectors with the generalized eigenvectors (i don't know what are these) to form complete set? I want to read the proof too. The references include German texts which are not accessible for me right now.
P.S I have tried googling but couldn't find the answer.