Confused about black holes and acceleration

hazhar
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
as a warning, my knowledge of physics is purely on the level of 'mild interest'. Any innacuracies/stupidities in the following post are because of this, and I hope you'll make allowances for my layman status :-p

basically, I'm confused as to how black holes 'move'. My understanding of relativity is that the more massive an object, the more energy it requires to accelerate... but my understanding of the nature of a black hole is that it is infinitely massive... Does that mean a black hole requires infinite energy to accelerate, even a tiny amount? That seems like a mildly valid situation... but say we have 2 black holes, very close to each other. Presumably their gravity will cause them to move towards each other... but where is the energy for this move coming from? And would an encounter with another black hole be the only situation in which a black hole will move?

I hope that makes enough sense for you to be able to explain what the solution to this is :rolleyes:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
but my understanding of the nature of a black hole is that it is infinitely massive...

Here lies a basic problem, black holes do NOT have an infinite mass. There mass is finite but the density of the mass approaches infinity.
 
Here lies a basic problem, black holes do NOT have an infinite mass. There mass is finite but the density of the mass approaches infinity.

heh. i thought it would be something simple like that. nevermind then... :rolleyes:
 
I started reading a National Geographic article related to the Big Bang. It starts these statements: Gazing up at the stars at night, it’s easy to imagine that space goes on forever. But cosmologists know that the universe actually has limits. First, their best models indicate that space and time had a beginning, a subatomic point called a singularity. This point of intense heat and density rapidly ballooned outward. My first reaction was that this is a layman's approximation to...
Thread 'Dirac's integral for the energy-momentum of the gravitational field'
See Dirac's brief treatment of the energy-momentum pseudo-tensor in the attached picture. Dirac is presumably integrating eq. (31.2) over the 4D "hypercylinder" defined by ##T_1 \le x^0 \le T_2## and ##\mathbf{|x|} \le R##, where ##R## is sufficiently large to include all the matter-energy fields in the system. Then \begin{align} 0 &= \int_V \left[ ({t_\mu}^\nu + T_\mu^\nu)\sqrt{-g}\, \right]_{,\nu} d^4 x = \int_{\partial V} ({t_\mu}^\nu + T_\mu^\nu)\sqrt{-g} \, dS_\nu \nonumber\\ &= \left(...
In Philippe G. Ciarlet's book 'An introduction to differential geometry', He gives the integrability conditions of the differential equations like this: $$ \partial_{i} F_{lj}=L^p_{ij} F_{lp},\,\,\,F_{ij}(x_0)=F^0_{ij}. $$ The integrability conditions for the existence of a global solution ##F_{lj}## is: $$ R^i_{jkl}\equiv\partial_k L^i_{jl}-\partial_l L^i_{jk}+L^h_{jl} L^i_{hk}-L^h_{jk} L^i_{hl}=0 $$ Then from the equation: $$\nabla_b e_a= \Gamma^c_{ab} e_c$$ Using cartesian basis ## e_I...

Similar threads

Back
Top