Continuity (intermediate value theorem)

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the equation x²(cos(x))ⁿ + xsin(x) + 1 = 0 has an infinite number of solutions, where n is a natural number. The discussion centers around the application of the intermediate value theorem and properties of trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the behavior of the function f(x) at specific points, particularly where cos(x) = 0, and consider the implications of these values on the function's sign. There is discussion about selecting intervals and the periodic nature of the function.

Discussion Status

Participants have identified specific values of x and their corresponding function outputs, leading to a potential application of the intermediate value theorem. There is acknowledgment of the periodicity of the function and its implications for the existence of solutions.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about how to demonstrate the infinite solutions aspect, particularly in relation to the periodic nature of the equation and the specific intervals chosen for analysis.

mtayab1994
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Homework Statement



Let n be a natural number.
Prove that the equation: [tex]x^{2}(cos(x))^{n}+xsin(x)+1=0[/tex] has an infinite amount of solutions.




The Attempt at a Solution



I named that equation f(x)=0 and I said that f(a)<f(0)<f(b) and that f(a) x f(b) < 0.

Should I choose n=1 and chose a=0 and b=pi ? I know that the equation is a period equation so it will have an infinite amount of solutions, but I'm not sure how to show it because I've only been dealing with equations that want you to show there is at least one solution in [a,b]. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you.
 
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Hint: consider the values of [itex]x[/itex] for which [itex]\cos(x) = 0[/itex]. What does [itex]\sin(x)[/itex] equal for these values of [itex]x[/itex]?
 
jbunniii said:
Hint: consider the values of [itex]x[/itex] for which [itex]\cos(x) = 0[/itex]. What does [itex]\sin(x)[/itex] equal for these values of [itex]x[/itex]?

When cos(x)=0 then sin(x)=1 for values in the form of x= pi/2+2kpi

So then we could have : f(3pi/2) < f(0) < f(pi/2) ??
 
mtayab1994 said:
When cos(x)=0 then sin(x)=1 for values in the form of x= pi/2+2kpi
OK, and what about [itex]x = 3\pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]?

So then we could have : f(3pi/2) < f(0) < f(pi/2) ??
Are you asking me, or telling me? What does f(x) reduce to when [itex]x = \pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]? How about when [itex]x = 3\pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]?
 
jbunniii said:
OK, and what about [itex]x = 3\pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]?


Are you asking me, or telling me? What does f(x) reduce to when [itex]x = \pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]? How about when [itex]x = 3\pi/2 + 2k\pi[/itex]?

Don't mind me I've had a really long day i wanted to say x=pi/2+kpi.
 
Ok this is what i got: f(pi/2)=pi/2+1 and f(3pi/2)=1-3pi/2 so we can say that:

f(3pi/2) < 0 < f(pi/2) am i correct?
 
mtayab1994 said:
Ok this is what i got: f(pi/2)=pi/2+1 and f(3pi/2)=1-3pi/2 so we can say that:

f(3pi/2) < 0 < f(pi/2) am i correct?

Yes, that's right. Now you can apply the intermediate value theorem.

You can argue similarly for [itex]f(3\pi/2 + 2k\pi)[/itex] and [itex]f(\pi/2 + 2k\pi)[/itex], for any positive integer [itex]k[/itex].
 
jbunniii said:
Yes, that's right. Now you can apply the intermediate value theorem.

You can argue similarly for [itex]f(3\pi/2 + 2k\pi)[/itex] and [itex]f(\pi/2 + 2k\pi)[/itex], for any positive integer [itex]k[/itex].

Alright I've got it thanks for your help.
 

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