Convergence/Divergence of series

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The series \(\sum\frac{(2n)!}{n^n}\) is being analyzed for convergence using the ratio test, which initially suggests divergence. The limit calculated approaches infinity, indicating divergence, yet the series is believed to converge based on an online source. The discussion highlights confusion over the application of the ratio test and potential algebraic errors. Further analysis shows that splitting the terms reveals that each term in the series exceeds one, reinforcing the idea that the series diverges. The overall conclusion is that the series does not converge as initially thought.
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Hello,

I have to prove conv/div. for the following series:

\sum\frac{(2n)!}{n^n}

I use the "ratio-test" and get the following:

\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}} = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(2n+2)!}{(2n)!} \frac{n^n}{(n+1)^{n+1}} = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(2n+2)(2n+1)}{(n+1)} (\frac{n}{1+n})^n = \infty \frac{1}{e} = \infty

This means the series diverges, however, the series should converge (I could find the finite sum online).

Where is my mistake?

Thank you!
 
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The last half terms can be written as {(n+l)/n}{(n+2)/n}{(n+3)/n}...{2n/n}, and the first n terms are just n!.
 
robert Ihnot said:
The last half terms can be written as {(n+l)/n}{(n+2)/n}{(n+3)/n}...{2n/n}, and the first n terms are just n!.
Sorry, I do not quite understand what you mean or how this helps me. Could you elaborate on that?

Also, I am interested in why the test I am using does not work out like it should or if I made an algebra mistake somewhere along the way.
 
Using stirlings approximation to replace the factorial, I get the series diverges. Where did you find online its sum?
 
Thomas_ said:
Sorry, I do not quite understand what you mean or how this helps me. Could you elaborate on that?

Also, I am interested in why the test I am using does not work out like it should or if I made an algebra mistake somewhere along the way.

What he's saying is that if you split it up, you get 1/n*1/n*1/n...*(2n)(2n-1)(2n-2)...(n+1)*n!

So you put one n under each 2n-k and get

2n/n*(2n-1)/n*(2n-2)/n...*(n+1)/n*n!

As each (2n-k)/n>1, and n!>1, each term in the series is >1. So there's very little reason why it would converge
 
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