Convergence for Infinite Series

roam
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1. Examine the series \frac{1}{1 . 2} +\frac{1}{2 . 3}+\frac{1}{3 . 4}+\frac{1}{4 . 5}... for convergence.



3. The Attempt at a Solution

The following is the book's answer:

"lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}S_{n}
lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}) = 1 - 0 = 1
Hence the series converge and its sum is 1. "


From S_{n} =\frac{1}{1 . 2} +\frac{1}{2 . 3}+\frac{1}{3 . 4}+\frac{1}{4 . 5}...

I can see that the nth term is \frac{1}{n . (n+1)} but I can't follow how the book's obtained the "1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}" or th nth partial sum.

I appreciate some help. Unfortunently there are no explanations in the book on this question.

 
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try splitting \frac{1}{n . (n+1)} into partial fractions, then use the property of a telescoping series.
 
try splitting \frac{1}{n . (n+1)} into partial fractions, then use the property of a telescoping series.

Is this correct:

(\frac{1}{1} \times \frac{1}{2}) + (\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}) + (\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{1}{4}) + (\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{5}) + ... + (\frac{1}{n} \times \frac{1}{n + 1})

I still don't understand how to reach 1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}
 
Did you rewrite 1/[n(n+1)] using partial fractions? Doesn't seem like you have. You just wrote out the first few terms and the n-th term.
 
\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}

Now you got:

(1 - \frac{1}{2})+(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3})+(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4})+...+(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1})

What can you assume?
 
Oh, thanks. Now I understand what rockfreak was saying about splitting it into partial fractions.


(1 - \frac{1}{2})+(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3})+(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4})+...+(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1})

What can you assume?

Now I can test for convergence in lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{1}{n} - \frac{1}{n+a}) but the book says we need to have "1 - \frac{1}{n+1}" & I'm not sure where I can find it from.
 
No... look at what he wrote you see how for -1/2 there's a 1/2, for -1/3 there's a 1/3, etc. so what are you left with?

I believe the original post gave you 2 suggestions:
1) Use partial fractions.
2) Use properties of telescoping series.

1) was done for you by the Russian devil, now do part 2)
 
Yes, they will cancel out and the series simply equal 1 therefore the series converge to one. I'll go & try some more examples & hopefully I think I learned the idea of "telescoping series"!

Thanks very much :)
 
roam said:
Yes, they will cancel out and the series simply equal 1 therefore the series converge to one. I'll go & try some more examples & hopefully I think I learned the idea of "telescoping series"!

Thanks very much :)

No, look again.

There are 1 + \frac{1}{n+1} left.

Now you got \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1 + \frac{1}{n+1}).

Because \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{1}{n+1})=0

you got what? :smile: (rhyme)
 
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  • #10
Дьявол said:
\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}

Hold on here for a moment!

:bugeye:

In the original post i can see that the series is actually

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n.(n+1)}=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+...

and not

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{1*2}+\frac{1}{2*3}+\frac{1}{3*4}+...

There is a difference, don't u think? There certainly is a difference, unless the OP actually wanted to write the second one.

(To the OP:which one is it?)
 
  • #11
He meant . as a a multiplication symbol, what he probably should have used was \cdot
 
  • #12
NoMoreExams said:
He meant . as a a multiplication symbol, what he probably should have used was \cdot

Well, yeah, that's what i was thinking too, since it isn't that easy to evaluate the sum of the other seires, unless we sought for some relation to a specific case of a Taylor expansion, or something like that.
 
  • #13
Hi StupidMath! Yes, like NomoreExams said I meant a multiplication symbol.


Sorry Dyavol, I forgot.

lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (1 - \frac{1}{n+1}) = 1 - 0 = 1

Hence the series converges and its sum is 1.
 
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