Convergence in distribution example

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of convergence in distribution for a sequence of random variables, specifically examining the sequence defined by \(X_n = (-1)^{n+1} + \frac{1}{n}\). The cumulative distribution function (CDF) for the random variable \(X\) is defined, and it is established that \(F_{X_n}(x)\) does not converge to \(F_X(x)\) for \(x \in (-1, 1)\) due to the alternating nature of \(X_n\). The participants conclude that the original problem statement is flawed, as \(F_{X_n}(0)\) oscillates between 0 and 1, failing to converge to the expected limit of \(1/2\).

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AlexF
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Homework Statement


prob.png


Homework Equations


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Definition: A sequence X_1,X_2,\dots of real-valued random variables is said to converge in distribution to a random variable X if \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}F_{n}(x)=F(x) for all x\in\mathbb{R} at which F is continuous. Here F_n, F are the cumulative distributions functions of the random variables X_n and X respectively.

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm trying to understand/recreate the following solution to the problem.

prob1.png


My working so far is that
$$F_{X}(x)=P(X\leq x)=\begin{cases} 0, &x<-1 \\ 1/2, &x\in[-1,1) \\ 1, &x\geq 1\end{cases}$$ and since X only takes values 1 and -1 then X_n = (-1)^{n+X}+\frac1n=(-1)^{n+1}+\frac1n and so $$F_{X_n}(x)=P(X_n\leq x)=\begin{cases} 0, &x<(-1)^{n+1}+\frac{1}{n} \\ 1, &x\geq (-1)^{n+1}+\frac{1}{n}\end{cases}$$ I can't understand how the limits to this have been achieved in the solution. Why does F_{X_n}(x)\rightarrow 1/2 for t\in(-1,1), say?
 
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I agree with your analysis. It looks like the problem has been incorrectly stated. The ##X_n## are not even random, since ##X_n=(-1)^{n+1}## for all integer ##n##.

The ##X_n## do not converge in distribution to ##X## because ##F_X## is continuous at 0 and equal to ##1/2##, but ##F_{X_n}(0)## is alternately ##0## and ##1## as ##n## increments, hence ##F_n(0)## does not converge to ##1/2##.

The specific error in the text's attempted proof is the statement that 'for large enough ##n##, ##F_{X_n}(t)=1/2##' (for ##t\in(-1,1)##) .
 
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andrewkirk said:
I agree with your analysis. It looks like the problem has been incorrectly stated. The ##X_n## are not even random, since ##X_n=(-1)^{n+1}## for all integer ##n##.

The ##X_n## do not converge in distribution to ##X## because ##F_X## is continuous at 0 and equal to ##1/2##, but ##F_{X_n}(0)## is alternately ##0## and ##1## as ##n## increments, hence ##F_n(0)## does not converge to ##1/2##.

The specific error in the text's attempted proof is the statement that 'for large enough ##n##, ##F_{X_n}(t)=1/2##' (for ##t\in(-1,1)##) .
That makes sense, thanks a lot! I thought I was going crazy xD
 

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