Convergence of series (Theoretical Question)

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The discussion centers on the convergence of the series Σ (-1)^n/(an^2 + 1), given that Σ 1/an is a convergent series of positive terms. Participants explore the application of the Leibniz criterion for alternating series, noting that if the terms of the series are positive and decreasing, convergence can be established. However, there is uncertainty about proving that the series 1/an is decreasing and how to manipulate the terms to apply the criterion effectively. Ultimately, it is concluded that since Σ(1/(an^2 + 1)) is convergent, the alternating series Σ (-1)^n/(an^2 + 1) is also convergent, provided the necessary conditions of the Leibniz criterion are met. The conversation highlights the complexities involved in determining convergence for alternating series.
Muradean
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1. The problem:

Ive been all afternoon struggling with this doubt. Its a bit more teoric than the rest of the exercices i did and i just can't seem to get around it so here it goes :
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Consider ∑ 1/an a convergent serie of positive terms.

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What´s the nature of Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1)

Homework Equations


(Leibniz criterion) ? If ∑(-1)^(n)an is an alternated serie and the sucession(an) is decreasing and his limit→+00 an = 0 then i can say that ∑(-1)^(n)an is converging.

The Attempt at a Solution




My initial thought was:... a-ha! This is an alternate serie! Because of the (-1)^n ...

So if i prove that the serie 1/an is decreasing since i already know the lim an= 0 i can say that the serie:
(Leibniz criterion)


Σ (-1)^n/(an) IS CONVERGENT however i have two problems...1- I don't know how to prove that 1/an is decreasing.

2- The serie that they ask me to study is different and even if i could prove that 1/an is decreasing i don't know if through algebric manipulation i could get to:

Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1)

Im not even sure if I am going the right way. Anyone has any clue? This is bothering me so much!atement, all variables and given/known data
 
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Muradean said:
1. The problem:

Ive been all afternoon struggling with this doubt. Its a bit more teoric than the rest of the exercices i did and i just can't seem to get around it so here it goes :
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Consider ∑ 1/an a convergent serie of positive terms.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What´s the nature of Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1)
Given that ##\sum \frac 1 {a_n}## is a convergent series with ##a_n > 0##, can you say something about the series ##\sum \frac 1 {a_n^2 + 1}##?
Are the terms of this series larger, smaller, or the same as, term by term, of the series ##\sum \frac 1 {a_n}##?
Muradean said:

Homework Equations


(Leibniz criterion) ? If ∑(-1)^(n)an is an alternated serie and the sucession(an) is decreasing and his limit→+00 an = 0 then i can say that ∑(-1)^(n)an is converging.

The Attempt at a Solution

My initial thought was:... a-ha! This is an alternate serie! Because of the (-1)^n ...

So if i prove that the serie 1/an is decreasing since i already know the lim an= 0 i can say that the serie:
(Leibniz criterion)Σ (-1)^n/(an) IS CONVERGENT however i have two problems...1- I don't know how to prove that 1/an is decreasing.

2- The serie that they ask me to study is different and even if i could prove that 1/an is decreasing i don't know if through algebric manipulation i could get to:

Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1)

Im not even sure if I am going the right way. Anyone has any clue? This is bothering me so much!atement, all variables and given/known data
 
The terms start in n= 1 and go up to +00
 
Muradean said:
The terms start in n= 1 and go up to +00
Fine. Did you read my post?
 
Oh sorry. yes i did, i notice that the terms are smaller. Are you saying that i can compare the serie
Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) with (1/an) using the criterion of geral comparison?

If an≤bn for n ≥ f then:

(1) -Σbn is convergent → Σan is convergent

(2) -Σan is divergent → Σbn is divergent

At a first glance it doesn't seem that useful cause since the terms are smaller i get that Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) is (an) and that 1/an is (bn).

So i guess now i can say that Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) is convergent?

However that serie that I am trying to prove doesn't have just positive terms, Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1) also has negative terms so i can't apply criterion of comparison. So i have no clue...
 
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Muradean said:
Oh sorry. yes i did, i notice that the terms are smaller. Are you saying that i can compare the serie
Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) with (1/an) using the criterion of geral comparison?

If an≤bn for n ≥ f then:

(1) -Σbn is convergent → Σan is convergent

(2) -Σan is divergent → Σbn is divergent

At a first glance it doesn't seem that useful cause since the terms are smaller i get that Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) is (an) and that 1/an is (bn).

So i guess now i can say that Σ 1/(an^(2) +1) is convergent?
Yes.
Muradean said:
However that serie that I am trying to prove doesn't have just positive terms, Σ (-1)^n/(an^(2) +1) also has negative terms so i can't apply criterion of comparison. So i have no clue...
If you know that a series ##\sum b_n## converges, can you conclude anything about the alternating series ##\sum (-1)^nb_n##? I.e., does it
a) converge,
b) diverge, or
c) is it impossible to determine?
 
I can't conclude nothing using the geral criterion of comparison cause it only applies to series with positive terms. The problem is that (-1)^n !

Im almost sure it converges but on the definition of this criterion it says it is explicitly for series with positive terms.
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I have this example in my head: Σ(1/n)

1/2,1/3,1/4,1/5 1/6...

If i join that (-1)^n it will be something like:

1/2,-1/3,1/4,-1/5 1/6... which also converges but using a example obviously in no valid explanation.
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I also noticed that 1/an looks like a dirichlet series however i can't also make that assumption! cause the "(an)" can be anything! If i could I am almost sure i knew how to do it.

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is it valid to do something like this?

1) Σ(-1)^n/(an^(2) +1) =( -1)^nΣ(1/(an^(2) +1)

2) since i know 1/an is a serie of positives terms larger than Σ(1/(an^(2) +1) and 1/an is convergent , Σ(1/(an^(2) +1) is also convergent.

3)Since Σ(1/(an^(2) +1) is convergent, ( -1)^nΣ(1/(an^(2) +1) also is (just cause? ).
 
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At the risk of gving too much away,
Mark44 said:
If you know that a series ##\sum b_n## converges, can you conclude anything
 
I know that if (bn) converges, (an) will also converge. So i know that Σ(1/(an^(2) +1) is convergent, However my problem is that the serie in question is Σ((-1)^n/(an^(2) +1) and since it has negative terms i can't apply that criterion. The same applies with bn. If i know bn is convergent what criterion should i use to consider bn(-1)^n also convergent?

What is on my mind is: If i know that a certain serie is convergent, the limit →+00 = 0 and it doesn't seem to change if just multiply it by (-1)^n
 
  • #10
Forget everything except that there is a series with terms ##b_n##, and that the series ##\sum b_n## converges. What can you conclude?
 
  • #11
I can conclude that bn limit →+00 = 0 and that an is convergent.
 
  • #12
George Jones said:
Forget everything except that there is a series with terms ##b_n##, and that the series ##\sum b_n## converges. What can you conclude?

Go right back to basics. If ##b_n > 0## and ##S =\sum b_n## is convergent. By definition, this means that
S(N) = \sum_{n=1}^N b_n
is a convergent sequence; that is, ##S = \lim_{N \to \infty} S(N) ## exists and is finite. Note that
\sum_{n=1}^N b_n = \sum_{n \leq N \;\text{even}} b_n + \sum_{n \leq N \;\text{odd}} b_n .
 
  • #13
Ok! i think i got it. Can anyone just say if this sounds like a reasonable answer?

They ask me to study nature of ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) knowing that 1/an is convergent.

Step 1- I know that ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) < 1/an .

Step 2- Since all the terms of the series in Step 1 are positive i can conclude by the criterion of geral comparison that since 1/an is convergent ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) is also convergent.

Step 3- Consider bn = ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) so
∑bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1)

According to leibniz criterion, if ∑ bn*(-1)^n is an alternate serie where the sucession bn is decreasing and convergent and its lim+00 = 0.(basically saying that bn must be convergent)
I can conclude that ∑ bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) is convergent!
 
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  • #14
Muradean said:
Nevermind, i just check the Leibniz criterion again. If bn is convergent, its lim+00 = 0.

And according to Leibniz criterion:

if Σ(-1)bn is an alternated serie where the sucession (bn) is decreasing and its lim+00 = 0 then i can say that Σ(-1)^nbn is convergent.

I can come up with a sequence in which the ##b_n>0 ## are not monotone non-increasing, but which go to zero quickly enough that the series ##\sum b_n## converges anyway. You could not apply your argument to such a case.
 
  • #15
Muradean said:
Ok! i think i got it. Can anyone just say if this sounds like a reasonable answer?

They ask me to study nature of ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) knowing that 1/an is convergent.

Step 1- I know that ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) < 1/an .

Step 2- Since all the terms of the series in Step 1 are positive i can conclude by the criterion of geral comparison that since 1/an is convergent ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) is also convergent.

Step 3- Consider bn = ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) so
∑bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1)

According to leibniz criterion, if ∑ bn*(-1)^n is an alternate serie where the sucession bn is decreasing and convergent and its lim+00 = 0.(basically saying that bn must be convergent)
I can conclude that ∑ bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) is convergent!

Your Step 1 is wrong; you may have ##1/(a_n^2 +1) < 1/a_n## but there is no reason at all to assume you have ##\sum 1/(a_n^2 +1) < 1/a_n##. When you write things like that you are just begging for marks to be taken off!

Anyway, as I said before, you cannot just apply an alternating-series argument, because the successive terms may not be decreasing each and every time.
 
  • #16
Sorry, I've been reviewing the steps and what i really meant to write as Step 1 was :Step 1- I know that (1/(an^(2) + 1) < 1/an . (i bugged the integral symbol on the previous post)

Step 2- Since Σ1/an and ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) have just positive terms i can conclude by the criterion of geral comparison that since ∑1/an is convergent ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) is also convergent.

Step 3- Consider bn = ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) so
∑bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1)

According to leibniz criterion, if ∑ bn*(-1)^n is an alternate serie where the sucession bn is decreasing and convergent and its lim+00 = 0.(basically saying that bn must be convergent)
I can conclude that ∑ bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) is convergent!Note:Since bn is convergent can't i tell by D`Alembert criterion that if i do lim n->+00 bn+1/bn = <1 and so... doesn't this mean that bn is decreasing?
 
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  • #17
Muradean said:
Sorry, I've been reviewing the steps and what i really meant to write as Step 1 was :Step 1- I know that (1/(an^(2) + 1) < 1/an . (i bugged the integral symbol on the previous post)

Step 2- Since Σ1/an and ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) have just positive terms i can conclude by the criterion of geral comparison that since ∑1/an is convergent ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) is also convergent.

Step 3- Consider bn = ∑(1/(an^(2) + 1) so
∑bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1)

According to leibniz criterion, if ∑ bn*(-1)^n is an alternate serie where the sucession bn is decreasing and convergent and its lim+00 = 0.(basically saying that bn must be convergent)
I can conclude that ∑ bn*(-1)^n = ∑(-1)^n/(an^(2) + 1) is convergent!Note:Since bn is convergent can't i tell by D`Alembert criterion that if i do lim n->+00 bn+1/bn = <1 and so... doesn't this mean that bn is decreasing?

No. Consider an example like ##b_n = |\sin(n)|/n^{1.1}##. We have ##b_n \leq 1/n^{1.1}##, so ##\sum b_n## is dominated by the convergent ##p##-series ##\sum 1/n^{1.1}##, but the terms of ##b_n## do not form a non-decreasing sequence: we can have ##b_{n+1} > b_n## for infinitely many values of ##n##. Nevertheless, we can establish the convergence of ##\sum (-1)^n b_n##, essentially using the hints I supplied in post #12.
 
  • #18
Ray Vickson said:
No. Consider an example like ##b_n = |\sin(n)|/n^{1.1}##. We have ##b_n \leq 1/n^{1.1}##, so ##\sum b_n## is dominated by the convergent ##p##-series ##\sum 1/n^{1.1}##, but the terms of ##b_n## do not form a non-decreasing sequence: we can have ##b_{n+1} > b_n## for infinitely many values of ##n##. Nevertheless, we can establish the convergence of ##\sum (-1)^n b_n##, essentially using the hints I supplied in post #12.
I´ve read and spent some time with post 12, but i just don't see how it does prove the convergence of ∑(-1)^nbn, could you provide me with any hint?
 
  • #19
Muradean said:
I´ve read and spent some time with post 12, but i just don't see how it does prove the convergence of ∑(-1)^nbn, could you provide me with any hint?

Try writing out the first six or seven terms of both the finite sums ##\sum_{n=1}^N b_n## and ##\sum_{n=1}^N (-1)^n b_n##, then look carefully at what you have. It is important to remember that for finite sums it is perfectly legitimate to re-order the terms and collect them in any convenient forms you want.
 
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