Converrgence of oscillating sequence

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on proving the convergence of the oscillating sequence defined by c_{n+1} = 1/(1+c_n) with c_1 = 1. The user successfully demonstrated that the differences between consecutive terms alternate in sign. They are seeking assistance in proving that the absolute differences decrease and approach zero, which is essential for establishing convergence. The user has derived that |c_{n+1} - c_n| is less than |c_n - c_{n-1}|, indicating a decreasing trend in absolute differences. The conclusion suggests that these properties imply the sequence is Cauchy, thereby confirming its convergence.
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Convergence of oscillating sequence

Hi, I have to prove that an oscillating sequence converges, I am having some difficulty with the proof.

The sequence is c_{n+1} = \frac{1}{1+c_{n}} , c_{1} = 1

So, I've calculated the first few terms and have seen that the sequence oscillates. I know that I need to prove:
1) The differences alternate in sign.
2) The absolute differences decrease.
3) The absolute differences approach 0.

I have proved 1, using:

<br /> c_{n+1} - c_{n} = \left(\frac{1}{1+c_{n}}\right) - \left(\frac{1}{1+c_{n-1}}\right)<br /> =\frac{1+c_{n-1}-1-c_{n}}{1+c_{n-1}+c_{n}+c_{n-1}c_{n}}<br />
<br /> =\frac{-(c_{n}-c_{n-1})}{1+c_{n-1}+c_{n}=c_{n-1}c_{n}}<br />

And since all terms are positive, the denomenator will be positive and the difference between two terms with alternate in sign from the difference between the previous two terms.

I now am having trouble proving 2 and 3. I'm not exactly sure what to do; the example in my book is not very helpful.So far I have:

<br /> |c_{n+1}-c_{n}| &lt; |c_{n} - c_{n-1}|<br />

but that's not much... If anyone could help, that would be great! Thanks!
 
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Note that:
(1+c_{n})(1+c_{n-1})=2+c_{n-1}
By substituting c_{n}=\frac{1}{1+c_{n-1}}
 
Thank you! Ok, now I have:

<br /> |c_{n+1}-c_{n}| = \frac{|c_{n}-c_{n-1}|}{2+c_{n-1}}<br />

And since all terms are positive, 2+c_{n-1} will be positive, and each absolute difference will be a fraction of the previous absolute difference. Therefore they are decreasing and they will approach 0 as n apporaches infinity. Is that enough to prove this by just saying this? Thanks!

(Is there any way to change the title of the thread? I made a typo :redface: )
 
Technically, I guess you should prove that the gained relations imply that we've got a Cauchy sequence, and hence, that the sequence converges (depends on what you may take as granted)
 
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