Can anyone give any feed back on Conway and Kochen's free-will theorem? I thought the particle in area B knows instantaneously that its' separated partner in area A has altered, and as a result changes. Yet, the free-will theorem requires if free-will experiments are true, then particles must maintain some form of free will as well. But, how would the particle display free will if it is correlated with A? It seems this would be the result of A and FTL? Any help out there? If I've got it all wrong, please let me know-(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Conway and Kochen FW theorem

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