- #1
Could someone help me explain this situation
- Thread starter tukms
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- #2
Rajini
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Hi,
Top/tip of the tower accelerates faster than bottom. Please read the lines inside ( ).
difference in shear force between bottom and top of the tower makes the tower to break.
Top/tip of the tower accelerates faster than bottom. Please read the lines inside ( ).
difference in shear force between bottom and top of the tower makes the tower to break.
- #3
tiny-tim
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
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hi tukms! 
each brick is trying to pull the next brick, but there's a limit to how hard it can pull without the mortar (joining the bricks) breaking
that limit is the maximum shear force ("shear" means sideways to the join)
force = mass time acceleration, so if the acceleration is too large, then the force exceeeds the maximum shear force, and the mortar breaks
each brick is trying to pull the next brick, but there's a limit to how hard it can pull without the mortar (joining the bricks) breaking
that limit is the maximum shear force ("shear" means sideways to the join)
force = mass time acceleration, so if the acceleration is too large, then the force exceeeds the maximum shear force, and the mortar breaks
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure.
After the equation (4.50) it says
"It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)"
I still don't understand the figure :(
Here is...
Boundary conditions:
The derived Dirichlet and Neumann boundary conditions
In terms of the magnetic scalar potential:
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself.
Part (a) is quite easy. We get
$$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 =
\begin{pmatrix}
0 \\
0 \\
1
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
\sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 =
\begin{pmatrix}
1/\sqrt{2} \\
-1/\sqrt{2} \\
0
\end{pmatrix}
$$
There are two ways...
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