Coupling Spin-0 and spin-1 fields

[PLANCKTHEORY]

My question is, how does one get a wave function for a 'combined' spin-1 and a spin-0 field? How is this possible? I have only been able to find combined states for equal spin identical particles.

If you don't understand my question, I'll be glad to reword it.

 

[dextercioby]

What do you mean "combined spin 1 and spin 0"? A direct product state, or a linear superposition? The latter doesn't exist.

 

[PLANCKTHEORY]

What do you mean "combined spin 1 and spin 0"? A direct product state, or a linear superposition? The latter doesn't exist.

Basically, if they were one object. I suppose like a multi particle wave function. What would the Direct product state be like?

 

[Demystifier]

Basically, if they were one object. I suppose like a multi particle wave function. What would the Direct product state be like?

It would be something like
$\Psi^{\mu}(x,y)=\phi(x) \psi^{\mu}(y)$