mad mathematician
- 122
- 19
Iv'e got this proof from some claim:
Any Pure maths doctors out there who can explain to me why since ##V\ne \emptyset## that ##1\notin \mathfrak{b}##?
Thanks!
Any Pure maths doctors out there who can explain to me why since ##V\ne \emptyset## that ##1\notin \mathfrak{b}##?
Thanks!
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