dwintz02
- 59
- 0
[SOLVED] Delta Function Well and Uncertainty Principle
Griffiths Problem 2.25.
I need to calculate < p^{2}> for the Delta Function Well.
The answer given is:
< p^{2}> = (m\alpha/\hbar)^2
The wave function given by the book is:
\Psi(x,0)=\frac{\sqrt{}m\alpha}{\hbar} EXP(^{-m\alpha|x|/\hbar^{2}})
The result I get from just calculating the expectation value is -(ma/hbar)^2. The negative from the operator is still hanging around. However, the hint given in the book specifies that the derivative of Psi has a discontinuity at zero and this affects the value of p^2 because it puts a 2nd derivative on Psi. The book says to use the result from the previous problem which is:
If a function is defined piecewise such that:
"F=1 for x>0
F=0 for x<0
And for the rare case that it matters F(0)=1/2
The result is that dF/dx equals the delta function." I don't know how to incorporate this.
What I am currently doing is plugging in the operator, breaking the integral into 2 parts, one from -\infty to 0 and the other from 0 to +\infty. Is this not enough? If not, how do I calculate the jump in the 2nd derivative at 0? Thanks in advance!
Homework Statement
Griffiths Problem 2.25.
I need to calculate < p^{2}> for the Delta Function Well.
The answer given is:
< p^{2}> = (m\alpha/\hbar)^2
The wave function given by the book is:
\Psi(x,0)=\frac{\sqrt{}m\alpha}{\hbar} EXP(^{-m\alpha|x|/\hbar^{2}})
The Attempt at a Solution
The result I get from just calculating the expectation value is -(ma/hbar)^2. The negative from the operator is still hanging around. However, the hint given in the book specifies that the derivative of Psi has a discontinuity at zero and this affects the value of p^2 because it puts a 2nd derivative on Psi. The book says to use the result from the previous problem which is:
If a function is defined piecewise such that:
"F=1 for x>0
F=0 for x<0
And for the rare case that it matters F(0)=1/2
The result is that dF/dx equals the delta function." I don't know how to incorporate this.
What I am currently doing is plugging in the operator, breaking the integral into 2 parts, one from -\infty to 0 and the other from 0 to +\infty. Is this not enough? If not, how do I calculate the jump in the 2nd derivative at 0? Thanks in advance!