Differential equation y''-a(y'^2)-b(siny-a*cosy)=0

mst_ab
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solve this differential equation:

y''-a(y'^2)-b(siny-a*cosy)=0

(a&b are cte.)
 
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I'm assuming that "cte." means constants?

The first step is to classify the differential equation: Is it ordinary? Is it linear? Is it homogeneous?

Once you classify it, think of which methods you know that can be used to solve this type of DE. Which methods come to mind in this case?
 
a&b are constant,
i found the way of solving this !:

v=y'
=> y''=v(dv/dy)

after solving, i get this equation:

y'^2=(-0.82b*cosy-0.9b*siny)/1.36

(a=0.3)

I'm not noob! I'm professor of university!

please help me to solve this!:
y'^2=(-0.82b*cosy-0.9b*siny)/1.36
 
Umm...if y is function of x, then y''=v(dv/dx) not vdv/dy...What variable(s) is y actually a function of here?
 
gabbagabbahey said:
Umm...if y is function of x, then y''=v(dv/dx) not vdv/dy...What variable(s) is y actually a function of here?

No, gabbagabbahey, that is a perfectly valid method. If v= dy/dx, then
\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}= \frac{dv}{dx}
NOT "v(dv/dx)" and, by the chain rule,
= \frac{dy}{dx}\frac{dv/dy}= v\frac{dv}{dy}

That's a method called "quadrature" and is often used where the independent variable does not appear explicitely in the equation.

Unfortunately, once you have solved for v as a function of y, the integral for y as a function of x tends to be wicked! Often leading to an "elliptic integral" which I suspect is the case here.
 
Oops, yes, I think I need some coffee :redface:
 
By the way, here's an interesting application of "quadrature". Suppose you have a particle moving, on the real number line, under the influence of a force that depends only on position x and not t.

The equation of motion, "force= mass times acceleration", is
m \frac{d^2 x}{dt^2}= f(x)
where f(x) is the force function. Since t does not appear explicitely (the equation is "autonomous") we can let v= dx/dt and, as before, the equation becomes
mv\frac{dv}{dt}= f(x)
a separable equation. Write it as mv dv= f(x)dx and integrate both sides:
\frac{1}{2}mv^2= \int f(x)dx+ C
or
\frac{1}{2}mv^2- \int f(x)dx= C

Do you see that that is "conservation of energy"? (1/2)mv^2 is the kinetic energy and -\int f(x)dx is the potential energy.
 
?
y'=v=>(dy/dx)=v *
y''=dv/dx=(dv/dx)(dy/dx)=v(dv/dy) =_*_=> y"=v(dv/dy)
 
  • #10
gabbagabbahey said:
Oops, yes, I think I need some coffee :redface:

Hey, he said he was a University Professor and Universtiy Professors NEVER make mistakes!
 
  • #11
HallsofIvy said:
Hey, he said he was a University Professor and Universtiy Professors NEVER make mistakes!

Of course not, but apparently they do get "homework" :wink: :rolleyes:
 
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