rachmaninoff
I am trying to show that the series
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n}{n} converges (it's a variant of the harmonic series).
So far I got
1) The sequence of partial sums is monotone increasing
2)
\frac{1}{3}\leq\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n}\leq1
\frac{1}{3^n}\leq(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n\leq1^n
0<(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n\leq1
Since
\sin{x}=1\Rightarrow{x}=\frac{\pi}{2}+2m\pi
and \pi is irrational
\sin{n}<1
for all rational or integral n; thus
0<(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n<1\ \forall{n}\in\mathbb{N}.
What I've been trying to do here is prove that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy (edit: which is sufficient to show that it is bounded and the series converges):
\sum_{n=j}^{k}\frac{(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n}{n}<\epsilon
But I can't figure out how to show that \sin{n} is not arbitrarily close to 1 at some point, and that
(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n
is itself not arbitrarily close to 1; thus hindering attempts to make the sum vanish.
I also tried using the power series expansion of \sin{n} (which converges everywhere):
(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n=(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}(n-\frac{n^3}{3!}+\frac{n^5}{5!}-...))^n=(\frac{2}{3})^n+n(\frac{2}{3})^{n-1}(\frac{n}{3}-\frac{n^3}{3\cdot3!}+...)+...
(assuming this is valid, I don't know where it leads)
So what's the trick?
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n}{n} converges (it's a variant of the harmonic series).
So far I got
1) The sequence of partial sums is monotone increasing
2)
\frac{1}{3}\leq\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n}\leq1
\frac{1}{3^n}\leq(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n\leq1^n
0<(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n\leq1
Since
\sin{x}=1\Rightarrow{x}=\frac{\pi}{2}+2m\pi
and \pi is irrational
\sin{n}<1
for all rational or integral n; thus
0<(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n<1\ \forall{n}\in\mathbb{N}.
What I've been trying to do here is prove that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy (edit: which is sufficient to show that it is bounded and the series converges):
\sum_{n=j}^{k}\frac{(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n}{n}<\epsilon
But I can't figure out how to show that \sin{n} is not arbitrarily close to 1 at some point, and that
(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n
is itself not arbitrarily close to 1; thus hindering attempts to make the sum vanish.
I also tried using the power series expansion of \sin{n} (which converges everywhere):
(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\sin{n})^n=(\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}(n-\frac{n^3}{3!}+\frac{n^5}{5!}-...))^n=(\frac{2}{3})^n+n(\frac{2}{3})^{n-1}(\frac{n}{3}-\frac{n^3}{3\cdot3!}+...)+...
(assuming this is valid, I don't know where it leads)
So what's the trick?
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