Dirac delta function with complex arguments

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SUMMARY

The Dirac delta function, denoted as δ(z) for complex arguments z ∈ C, behaves similarly to its real counterpart in that the integral over a contour C is 1 if 0 is within C, and 0 otherwise. The integral can be expressed as \int_C f(x)\delta(x-a) dx, yielding 1 if a is in C. The delta function is defined as the limit of a sequence of functions, but it is not a true function due to non-convergence. The scaling property of the delta function, \delta(g(x)) = \sum_i\frac{\delta(x - x_i)}{|g'(x_i)|}, complicates evaluations when complex numbers are involved, leading to discrepancies in expected results.

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JayFsd
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This is probably a silly question to some, but I've been struggling to understand how the delta function behaves when given a complex argument, that is \delta(z), z \in C. I guess the basic definition is the same that the integral over all space is 1, but I'm looking for a more detailed guide on the inner workings. Does someone know of a good reference?

TIA.
 
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The (Dirac) delta function, which is a "Distribution" or "Generalized Function", rather than a true "function", can be defined in a number of ways. The most common definition is that
\int_C f(x)\delta (x)dx
is equal to 1 if 0 is in set C, equal to 0 if 0 is not in set C.

More generally
\int_C f(x)\delta (x-a) dx[/itex]<br /> is equal to 1 if a is in set C, equal to 0 if 0 is not in set C.<br /> <br /> There is no reason C cannot be a subset of the complex numbers and a a complex number.<br /> <br /> It can be thought of, roughly, as the limit of a sequence of functions, f<sub>n</sub>, such that f<sub>n</sub>= n if |z|&lt; 1/n, 0 other wise. Of course, that sequence doesn&#039;t actually converge which is why \delta(z) is not a true function!
 
I kind of have a follow-up question to JayFsd (a year later, ha).

Suppose that a is complex and you have the integral

\int_C f\left(x\right) \delta\left(x - a\right)dx

such that a lies on the countour C, you would expect the result to be:

\int_C f\left(x\right) \delta\left(x - a\right)dx = f\left(a\right).

However, to evaluate this integral for a specific contour, let's say, we do the substitution x = x\left(t\right),\, 0 &lt;t &lt; 1 and get

\int_0^1 f\left(x\left(t\right)\right)\delta\left(x\left(t\right) - x\left(t_a\right)\right)\frac{dx}{dt}dt

where x\left(t_a\right) = a

Ok, so the question I have:

According to Wikipedia, the dirac delta scales as

\delta\left(g\left(x\right)\right) = \sum_i\frac{\delta\left(x - x_i\right)}{|g&#039;\left(x_i\right)}

where the x_i are the roots of g.

So if I use that scaling property in the above integral, then I get

\int_0^1 f\left(x\left(t\right)\right)\delta\left(x\left(t\right) - x\left(t_a\right)\right)\frac{dx}{dt}dt = \frac{dx}{dt_a}/\left|\frac{dx}{dt_a}\right|f\left(x\left(t_a\right)\right)

which doesn't agree with the expected result. It seems as if I don't understand the derivation of the scaling property well enough -- that is with real numbers it seems fine, but when you throw complex numbers in the mix I get hopelessly lost.

Anyone care to chime in and help me?
 

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