kreil said:
So you know that
[tex]
|Z\rangle = |V\rangle - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2} |W\rangle[/tex]
So what do you think [itex]\langle Z|[/itex] equals?
[itex]\langle Z|[/itex] should just equal [tex]
\langle V| - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2} \langle W|[/tex]
right? So if I look at [itex]\langle Z|Z \rangle[/itex], I have to distribute, but I can't see how he's getting the terms he's getting, namely because I don't think I'm too comfortable with Dirac notation yet.
1: [itex]\langle V | V \rangle = \langle V | V \rangle[/itex] obviously,
2: [itex]\langle V | - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2} W \rangle[/itex] seems like it should equal [itex]- \frac{\langle W|V\rangle \langle V|W \rangle}{|W|^2}[/itex]
3: Probably the most confusing term for me:
[itex]\langle - \frac{\langle V|W \rangle}{|W|^2}W|V \rangle[/itex]
This seems to me like it should just be [itex]- \frac{\langle V|W \rangle \langle W|V \rangle}{|W|^2}[/itex] but this term doesn't appear anywhere in his final formulation really. I mean I guess [itex]\langle V|W \rangle[/itex] is equivalent to his [itex]\langle W|V \rangle ^*[/itex], but why does he get that conjugate instead of the [itex]\langle V|W \rangle[/itex] that I got?
4: then [itex]\langle - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2} W|- \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2} W \rangle[/itex] is the first term where I think I'm getting confused. For some reason the term he gets from this has a complex conjugate in it, which I assume means he's moving [itex]| - \frac{\langle W | V \rangle}{|W|^2} \rangle[/itex] to the bra side, which I assume makes the top term a complex conjugate, leaving me with [itex]\langle - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle}{|W|^2}\frac{\langle W|V\rangle ^*}{|W|^2} W| W \rangle = \frac{ \langle W|V \rangle \langle W|V \rangle ^* \langle W|W \rangle}{|W|^4}[/itex]
At the end, my final answer would look like: [itex]\langle V | V \rangle - \frac{\langle W|V\rangle \langle V|W \rangle}{|W|^2} - \frac{\langle V|W \rangle \langle W|V \rangle}{|W|^2} + \frac{ \langle W|V \rangle \langle W|V \rangle ^* \langle W|W \rangle}{|W|^4}[/itex]
This seems like it may at least be equivalent to his formulation based on what I said in 3, but even this took kind of a mental leap for me in part 4 with moving a term over to the bra side. Is that a correct step? If so, why?
Thanks so much for any help. I'm losing sleep over this.