You're making some very general statements based on a fairly specific situation. Much care is needed with these statements.
gracy said:
When line of action of force pass through a point there is no torque (moment of force)produced about that point and that's the reason there is no torque about q1 and q2 .
(Aren't subscripts so much better to read?)
To be specific: That's the reason that the stationary charge, q
1, exerts no torque (zero torque) on the moving charge, q
2, when that torque is about the location of q
1, the stationary charge.* This is important if you want to use angular momentum conservation to aid in analyzing the trajectory of charge q
2. In this case, the angular momentum of q
2, with respect to the location of charge q
1, is constant.
By the way, using ##\ I\omega \ ## is not a very helpful way to calculate angular momentum for a single particle unless it has a fixed distance from some point, such as the case of circular motion. The more general way to get the angular momentum about a point (taken here as the origin) is ##\ \vec{L} = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}\ ##.
*To be sure, the torque exerted by q
1 on q
2 is not necessarily zero when it is calculated about some other point.
Note: I hesitated even mentioning this lest the discussion go ambling down some stray path. We're already up to the 60's in the number of posts in this thread.