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MidnightR
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[PLAIN]http://img5.imageshack.us/img5/4661/img8965n.jpg
Problem 1.35. If you need help with the notation let me know but I think it's fairly standard.
For 1. I think this integral is equal to the same integral between 0 and 1 because for x<0 F_n = 0 and for x>1 F_n = 0 but other than that I'm not sure. I'm guessing it has something to do with as n tends to infinity f(nx) = 0
Just starting the problem so any tips please thanks
Problem 1.35. If you need help with the notation let me know but I think it's fairly standard.
For 1. I think this integral is equal to the same integral between 0 and 1 because for x<0 F_n = 0 and for x>1 F_n = 0 but other than that I'm not sure. I'm guessing it has something to do with as n tends to infinity f(nx) = 0
Just starting the problem so any tips please thanks
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