At first glance, it seems that, no, a stationary electron would not have a magnetic field associated with it, since we know that fields arise because of moving charges.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

However, if I understand the current description of the electron, it has an inherent quantum property called spin. This is nothing like what we normally think of, as in the spinning of a classical sphere around an axis of rotation (since then the electron would need to be spinning with an angular velocity far greater than the speed of light, which is impossible), but nevertheless, can give rise to a magnetic moment.

(http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/spin.html)

But aren't magnetic moments associated with respective magnetic fields via the Biot-Savart Law? For example, we see that earth has both a magnetic moment, and a related field; in fact everywhere we see magnetic fields, and we can find out their related magnetic moments.

(http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/magnetic/biosav.html)

So does an electron have an associated magnetic field because of its inherent quantum property of spin?

And if it does not, then why does it display this deviation from what seems to be a dual relationship seen throughout nature?

Thanks for helping me figure this out.

(note: this is an unanswered question from one of my previous threads)

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# Does a stationary electron have a magnetic field?

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