jk22
- 732
- 25
Hi all,
in Bell's theorem we consider the measurement of correlation A\otimes B and A\otimes B'
Then the theorem states that the "result" for A in both quantities is the same. But does QM not only gives probabilities of the result, hence the result could be in principle different for the measurement with the A operator in those 2 correlation, so that no factorization is possible for the result of measurement ?
in Bell's theorem we consider the measurement of correlation A\otimes B and A\otimes B'
Then the theorem states that the "result" for A in both quantities is the same. But does QM not only gives probabilities of the result, hence the result could be in principle different for the measurement with the A operator in those 2 correlation, so that no factorization is possible for the result of measurement ?