Does f(z) have a singularity at infinity and how can its residue be obtained?

  • Thread starter Thread starter abode_x
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Singularities
abode_x
Messages
11
Reaction score
0
does f(z)=\frac{ze^{iz}}{z^2+a^2} have a singularity at infinity?

if so, how do i get the residue there?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Does f(w):=f(1/z) has a singularity at w=0 is what you must ask yourself.

Btw - you're really not in the right forum.
 
Last edited:
okay so i transform z -> 1/w then take lim w-> 0... if it blows up then i do have a singularity... how do i get lim w->0 of exp(i/w) ?

well first, i think i need l'hopitals (for the whole function). then, can i use the fact that when taking a limit it can be approached along any line on the Z-plane? i.e. use the path along i-axis ?

i think the conclusion will be that it blows up. three follow up questions. 1. how do i get the residue at infinity? 2. what is the conclusion in a case wherein the limit does not exist? 3. Is the singularity at infinity and/or its residue useful? (i mean i know the finite singularities are useful in integration, does this arise in some physical theory?)

i am very sorry for posting in the wrong forum.. thanks for all the help
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top