Does the Fischer-Tropsch Process Remove Water From Synthetic Oils?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Shawnzyoo
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Process
AI Thread Summary
During the Fischer-Tropsch process for producing synthetic oils, water is generated as a byproduct. This water is typically removed from the oil through methods such as distillation. Additionally, it has been noted that synthetic oils tend to absorb more water compared to mineral oils during use. This increased absorption may be attributed to the chemical properties of synthetic oils, which allow them to interact differently with moisture. Anhydrous compounds like calcium chloride or sodium sulfate can also be used to absorb water from the oil, further aiding in moisture removal.
Shawnzyoo
Messages
104
Reaction score
0
Not sure if this is the right place for this, but here we go.
During the Fischer-Tropsch process to create synthetic oils one of the byproducts is water. Is this water removed from the oil somehow?
Also I have been told from some of the engineers that I work with that synthetic oils absorb more water when compared to mineral oils while in use.
I am not sure why this would happen, can anyone help clear this up for me?
Any help is greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
 
Chemistry news on Phys.org
I'm sure it is through distillation. I believe you could also use anhydrous compounds such as calcium chloride or sodium sulfate to absorb the water from the oil.
 
It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!
Back
Top