Does the Higgs mechanism explain the equivalence of gravitiational and

agnishom
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I am not well versed in the idea of Higgs mechanism. However, I was wondering if it does explain the problem of equivalence of gravitational and inertial mass.

Also, what is the modern accepted definition of mass?
 
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No it doesn't. It has nothing to do with this kind of question. The Higgs Mechanism is an idea basically used to cause Spontaneous Symmetry Breaking, by letting the Higgs field to acquire a vacuum expectation value (so it's a spin-0 /scalar field). Then the allowed interactions of the higgs field to the fermions, can lead to mass terms. These masses are the rest masses.
There is not only one definition... it depends on what type of mass you are talkin about.
 
So, what is the state of the art theory that explains that problem?A mathematician knows how to do it, but he cannot
 
What do you mean by art theory?
The problem of what? the equivalence of gravitational and inertial mass? I don't know if there's a theorem, since they are defined in a different way. They just happen to be (by experiment) extremely close to each other (if not equal).
 
I suggest reading about the equivalence principle on Wikipedia.

http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Equivalence_principle

(Small) objects in space time follow the same geodesic lines as long as no external force acts upon them (given the same initial position and velocity). Note that gravity is not a force in GR, but the cause of the space-time geometry giving rise to the form of the geodesics.
 
The principle of equivalence between inertial and gravitation mass is, as the name says, a "principle". It doesn't have a proof but it has very strong experimental evidences. Einstein considered it as a postulate of his theory of General Relativity.
 
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...

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