Does the Integral Diverge as a Tends to Infinity?

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The integral \(\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx\) diverges for \(a > 0\), as shown through a comparison approach. By establishing that \(\frac{1}{1/a-1/x} > 0\) for \(x \geq a + 1\), it follows that the integral is greater than the divergent integral \(\int_{a+1}^{\infty} a \, dx\). The evaluation leads to the conclusion that the limit approaches infinity, confirming divergence. Alternative methods were discussed, emphasizing the importance of adhering to the problem's constraints. Ultimately, the integral diverges without needing to reference the natural logarithm.
quasar987
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Here's the problem:

Consider a > 0. Show that the integral

\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx

diverges. Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x. :eek:

I have no clue what to do!
 
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What's \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{x}}?
 
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Evaluate the integral as
\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}\int_{a+1}^{b}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{x}}\ {dx}
=\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}\int_{a+1}^{b}a-\frac{a^2}{a-x}\ dx
...
... you can do the intermediary steps here... you'll work out that you get something like the following:
\lim_{b\rightarrow \infty}ab-a^2\log{a-b}-a^2-a+\log{1}

as you know, ab goes to infinity as b goes to infinity. ln(a-b) also becomes undefined as you subtract infinity from any number, since log is only defined for positive numbers.
 
Answering my query is a whole lot easier, and, unlike scholzie's method, does not require you to break the rules of the question!

Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x.
 
quasar987 said:
Here's the problem:

Consider a > 0. Show that the integral

\int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1/a-1/x}dx

diverges. Do so without using the fact that the primitive of 1/x is ln x. :eek:

I have no clue what to do!
Note that since {a > 0}:

:(1): \ \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ a \ \ = \ \ \frac {1} {1/a} \ \ < \ \ \frac{1} {1/a-1/x} \ \ \ \ \color{blue} \mathbb \forall \ \ x \ \ge \ (a + 1)

:(2): \ \ \ \ \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} a \ dx \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx

:(3): \ \ \ \ \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \ \ 0 \ \ < \ \ \left [ ax \right ]_{a + 1}^{\infty} \ \ < \ \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx

:(4): \ \ \ \ \color{red} \Longrightarrow \ \ (\infty) \ < \ \int_{a+1}^{\infty} \frac {1} {1/a-1/x} \ dx

Thus, subject integral diverges.


~~
 
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Data said:
Answering my query is a whole lot easier, and, unlike scholzie's method, does not require you to break the rules of the question!
Didnt see the bit about not using the antiderivative ln(x)... I was only trying to help...
 
scholzie said:
Didnt see the bit about not using the antiderivative ln(x)... I was only trying to help...
No problem ... several techniques are now available for comparison.


~~
 
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Yep, nothing wrong with posting alternate methods of solution, I was just trying to avoid getting him confused.
 
Ok, thanks everyone!
 
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