MHB Does this problem warrant a taylor expansion? (solid state physics)

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around determining the atomic form factor under two limiting conditions: when the Bohr radius \(a_o\) is much greater than the wavelength \(\lambda\) and when it is much smaller. The derived form factor is \(f=(\frac{4}{4+(a_oG)^2})^2\), leading to \(f \approx 0\) for \(a_o \gg \lambda\) and \(f \approx 1\) for \(a_o \ll \lambda\). The inquiry focuses on whether a Taylor expansion is appropriate for these cases, especially considering the dependence on the scattering angle \(\theta\). The response suggests examining the form factor at specific angles, indicating that both limiting cases may yield different behaviors based on \(\theta\). Understanding these dependencies is crucial for accurately applying Taylor expansions in this context.
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The whole problem I'm doing here is not even really relevant, so I won't go too much into it...I'm told to find an atomic form factor given some certain conditions, and I do a big gross integral and got this:
$$f=(\frac{4}{4+(a_oG)^2})^2$$
where \(a_o\) is the Bohr radius and \(G\) is the magnitude of an arbitrary reciprocal lattice vector.
After finding this, I am asked to find the atomic form factor as
\(a_o>>\lambda\) and as
\(a_o<<\lambda\).
This seems pretty simple because there is a relation between \(\lambda\) and \(G\):
$$G=\frac{4\pi}{\lambda}\sin\theta$$
Plugging that into my formula for the form factor, I quickly assumed that \(a_o>>\lambda\) will just make \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) really large, so the denominator of the form factor gets really large and then is approximately zero. And as \(a_o<<\lambda\), \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) is approximately zero, so the form factor ends up being 1.

The problem, however, also asks for both of the limiting cases if the form factor ends up depending on \(\theta\). I'm not sure why this would be asked for each case if one of them didn't end up with a \(\theta\) dependence...
So I'm asking for some advice, would it make sense to use a taylor expansion on either or both of these limiting cases? Why or why not?

Thanks for your attention!
 
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skatenerd said:
The whole problem I'm doing here is not even really relevant, so I won't go too much into it...I'm told to find an atomic form factor given some certain conditions, and I do a big gross integral and got this:
$$f=(\frac{4}{4+(a_oG)^2})^2$$
where \(a_o\) is the Bohr radius and \(G\) is the magnitude of an arbitrary reciprocal lattice vector.
After finding this, I am asked to find the atomic form factor as
\(a_o>>\lambda\) and as
\(a_o<<\lambda\).
This seems pretty simple because there is a relation between \(\lambda\) and \(G\):
$$G=\frac{4\pi}{\lambda}\sin\theta$$
Plugging that into my formula for the form factor, I quickly assumed that \(a_o>>\lambda\) will just make \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) really large, so the denominator of the form factor gets really large and then is approximately zero. And as \(a_o<<\lambda\), \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) is approximately zero, so the form factor ends up being 1.

The problem, however, also asks for both of the limiting cases if the form factor ends up depending on \(\theta\). I'm not sure why this would be asked for each case if one of them didn't end up with a \(\theta\) dependence...
So I'm asking for some advice, would it make sense to use a taylor expansion on either or both of these limiting cases? Why or why not?

Thanks for your attention!

Hi skatenerd!

Can it be that something like the following is intended? (Wondering)
\begin{array}{c|c|c|}
& a_0 \gg \lambda & a_0 \ll \lambda \\
\hline
\theta=0 & f = 1 & f=1\\
\hline
\theta = \pm \frac \pi 2 & f = 0 & f = 1\\
\hline
\end{array}
 
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