MHB Does this problem warrant a taylor expansion? (solid state physics)

skate_nerd
Messages
174
Reaction score
0
The whole problem I'm doing here is not even really relevant, so I won't go too much into it...I'm told to find an atomic form factor given some certain conditions, and I do a big gross integral and got this:
$$f=(\frac{4}{4+(a_oG)^2})^2$$
where \(a_o\) is the Bohr radius and \(G\) is the magnitude of an arbitrary reciprocal lattice vector.
After finding this, I am asked to find the atomic form factor as
\(a_o>>\lambda\) and as
\(a_o<<\lambda\).
This seems pretty simple because there is a relation between \(\lambda\) and \(G\):
$$G=\frac{4\pi}{\lambda}\sin\theta$$
Plugging that into my formula for the form factor, I quickly assumed that \(a_o>>\lambda\) will just make \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) really large, so the denominator of the form factor gets really large and then is approximately zero. And as \(a_o<<\lambda\), \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) is approximately zero, so the form factor ends up being 1.

The problem, however, also asks for both of the limiting cases if the form factor ends up depending on \(\theta\). I'm not sure why this would be asked for each case if one of them didn't end up with a \(\theta\) dependence...
So I'm asking for some advice, would it make sense to use a taylor expansion on either or both of these limiting cases? Why or why not?

Thanks for your attention!
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
skatenerd said:
The whole problem I'm doing here is not even really relevant, so I won't go too much into it...I'm told to find an atomic form factor given some certain conditions, and I do a big gross integral and got this:
$$f=(\frac{4}{4+(a_oG)^2})^2$$
where \(a_o\) is the Bohr radius and \(G\) is the magnitude of an arbitrary reciprocal lattice vector.
After finding this, I am asked to find the atomic form factor as
\(a_o>>\lambda\) and as
\(a_o<<\lambda\).
This seems pretty simple because there is a relation between \(\lambda\) and \(G\):
$$G=\frac{4\pi}{\lambda}\sin\theta$$
Plugging that into my formula for the form factor, I quickly assumed that \(a_o>>\lambda\) will just make \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) really large, so the denominator of the form factor gets really large and then is approximately zero. And as \(a_o<<\lambda\), \(\frac{a_o}{\lambda}\) is approximately zero, so the form factor ends up being 1.

The problem, however, also asks for both of the limiting cases if the form factor ends up depending on \(\theta\). I'm not sure why this would be asked for each case if one of them didn't end up with a \(\theta\) dependence...
So I'm asking for some advice, would it make sense to use a taylor expansion on either or both of these limiting cases? Why or why not?

Thanks for your attention!

Hi skatenerd!

Can it be that something like the following is intended? (Wondering)
\begin{array}{c|c|c|}
& a_0 \gg \lambda & a_0 \ll \lambda \\
\hline
\theta=0 & f = 1 & f=1\\
\hline
\theta = \pm \frac \pi 2 & f = 0 & f = 1\\
\hline
\end{array}
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
Back
Top