Easy complex analysis question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of a function involving cosine and its relationship to complex exponentials in the context of complex analysis. The original poster is attempting to understand the implications of integrating along the real axis and how it relates to the residue theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster questions the validity of equating integrals involving cosine and complex exponentials, specifically whether both forms yield the same result when evaluated along the real axis.
  • Some participants challenge the original poster's reasoning, suggesting that the relationship between cosine and the complex exponential is more nuanced than initially presented.
  • Further inquiries are made regarding the correctness of the proposed equations and the implications of integrating along the x-axis.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying misconceptions about the relationships between the integrals and the use of the residue theorem. There is a recognition of the need to address specific components of the equations presented, particularly regarding the real and imaginary parts of the integrals.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the condition that the integrals are evaluated along the real x-axis, which is a critical aspect of the discussion. Participants are also reflecting on the implications of complex variables and the use of Euler's formula in their reasoning.

Nikitin
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[solved]Easy complex analysis question

Hi. In the complex plain, since y = 0 (in z=x+iy) at the x axis, shouldn't the following be true? :

##y=0##
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(ax)}{x^2+2x+5} dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{iaz}}{z^2+2z+5} dz = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) dz
Or does it only go like this:
##y=0##
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(ax)}{x^2+2x+5} dx = Re(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{iaz}}{z^2+2z+5} dz)= Re( \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) dz)

I am asking because I need to find the value of the integral ##\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(ax)}{x^2+2x+5} dx## using the residue theorem, but I don't know whether I need to use the residue of ##Re(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) dz)## or ##\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) dz##. The problem is that if I use the latter, my logic seems coherent but I get a residue which has both a real and imaginary part, which hints that I should find the residue of the former instead.
 
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In fact,both are wrong!
This is how it should be:

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos{ax}}{x^2+2x+5}dx=Re (\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{iax}}{x^2+2x+5}dx)<br />
 
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Could you please explain:

1) why my equations are wrong
2) why yours is right

thanks :)

EDIT: oops I forgot to specify that y=0 for BOTH of those two integrals. They were both integrated along the x-axis.
 
Nikitin said:
Hi. In the complex plain, since y = 0 (in z=x+iy) at the x axis, shouldn't the following be true? :

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(ax)}{x^2+2x+5} dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{iaz}}{z^2+2z+5} dz = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(z) dz
No, how could this be true since ##\cos ax \ne e^{iax}##?
 
but it's true if y =0, isn't it? sorry I forgot to specify this condition in the OP. All the integrals are evaluated on the real x-axis.
 
No. Euler's formula tells you that ##e^{iax} = \cos ax + i\sin ax##. For complex z, you have ##e^{ia(x+iy)} = e^{-y}e^{iax}##, which is equal to ##e^{iax}## when y=0, so you still have a problem.
 
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oh crap I forgot about the ##i## infront of the ##az## (i've been cramming 70-80 hours a week now in preparation for the exams, duno if this is a good excuse). OK, I see the problem now,t hx
 

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