kuruman said:
What bothers me now is that, if we accept the results of case III or the Griffiths argument presented by
@vela in post #33, the implication is that one can do a delta function integral when the upper limit is the value where the argument of the delta function vanishes: $$E 4\pi R^2 =\frac{1}{\epsilon_0}\int_0^R \frac{Q}{4\pi R^2}\delta (r-R)4\pi r^2~dr=\frac{Q}{2}.$$Can one assert that this is true for the specific case of a charged conductor but not in general? Although Griffiths's argument is based on physical grounds, the Coulomb integral in case III is a mathematical argument.
The delta function can be defined more rigorously by
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\delta(x-a)\,dx = \lim_{n\to\infty} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\delta_n(x-a)\,dx = f(a)$$ for a suitably chosen sequence of functions ##\delta_n(x)##. (See for example
https://dlmf.nist.gov/1.17 and
https://mathworld.wolfram.com/DeltaSequence.html.) Most of the examples on the MathWorld page are symmetric about ##x=0##, but symmetry isn't a requirement. For example,
##\delta_n(x) = n[u(x)-u(x-1/n)]## is a perfectly valid delta sequence.
If we were to use the first example on the MathWorld page, we could say
\begin{align*}
\int_0^\infty f(x)\delta(x)\,dx &= \lim_{n\to\infty} \int_0^\infty f(x)\delta_n(x)\,dx \\
&= \lim_{n\to\infty} n \int_0^{1/2n} f(x)\,dx \\
&= \frac 12 f(0)
\end{align*} But if we used ##\delta_n(x) = n[u(x)-u(x-1/n)]## to evaluate the same integral, we'd get
\begin{align*}
\int_0^\infty f(x)\delta(x)\,dx &= \lim_{n\to\infty} \int_0^\infty f(x)\delta_n(x)\,dx \\
&= \lim_{n\to\infty} n \int_0^{1/n} f(x)\,dx \\
&= f(0)
\end{align*} When the argument of the delta function vanishes at one of the endpoints of integration, the value of the integral depends on how you define the delta function. In this problem, the factor of 1/2 makes physical sense.