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In a conducting shell,with inner radius R1 and outer radius R2,and with charge Q at the centre,the Potential at surface is (kQ/R2),Why it is not (KQ/R1)?? 

correctamundobrasilr9 said:We can see potential as work done by electric field (albeit this "work" isn't the same as Force do) There's no field inside the shell, hence the potential is all the same from the outer surface to the center.
brasilr9 said:Of course it isn't uniform
brasilr9 said:We can see potential as work done by electric field (albeit this "work" isn't the same as Force do) There's no field inside the shell, hence the potential is all the same from the outer surface to the center.
marlon said:ps : do you guys know the charge distribution in the shell if the inner charge is not at the center of the sphere (let us say it is 1 cm away from the center to the left side)...what is the charge distribution in the shell ? is it uniform ? this is a classic...
SpaceTiger said:The charge distribution on the inner surface would have to be non-uniform in order for there to be an electric field of zero inside the conducting shell. However, the distribution on the outer surface would be uniform. Conductors essentially "hide" the information about the charge inside them and that's why the http://www.absoluteastronomy.com/encyclopedia/f/fa/faraday_cage.htm works to block electromagnetic waves.
marlon said:ps : it has been a while, man, how have you been
what exactly does chilling mean ?SpaceTiger said:Pretty good, just chilling in Seattle for a few weeks.![]()
marlon said:what exactly does chilling mean ?![]()
is it a grunge thing ?
SpaceTiger said:Uh, if I'm visualizing this correctly, it's the same from the outer surface to the inner surface (since you're inside a conductor), but inside the inner surface, the potential goes as 1/r.