Electromagnetic induction and conductor

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ViolentCorpse
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Hello everyone,

One very basic thing about this phenomenon is not very clear to me. If a conductor moves in a region of uniform magnetic field, would it have an EMF induced across it? I'm confused because as per Faraday's law, a change in flux through the conductor is necessary for EMF to be induced in it but if the flux is everywhere the same in the region where the conductor is moving, there should be no change in flux through it and consequently, no EMF in it.

How much wrong am I?
 
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If a conductor moves in a region of uniform magnetic field, would it have an EMF induced across it?
If it has a component perpendicular to both motion and magnetic field, yes.

I'm confused because as per Faraday's law, a change in flux through the conductor is necessary for EMF to be induced in it but if the flux is everywhere the same in the region where the conductor is moving, there should be no change in flux through it and consequently, no EMF in it.
Think of an imaginary loop, with the moving conductor and some stationary part, completing the loop (and some hand-waving to maintain the connection). The flux through this loop will change.
 
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Remember the F=qvB sin (theta) formula... The electrons in the wire will be pushed by the m field resulting in current flowing the opposite direction... As mfb said,there only has to a component of the m field perpendicular to the velocity...
 
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I see.

Thank you!