Electron encountering metal surface (1D Step potential)

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The discussion centers on the behavior of an electron encountering a metal surface modeled as a 1D step potential. Participants debate the conditions under which an electron can escape, particularly whether to consider bound states (E < 0) or unbound states (E > 0). It is clarified that bound states cannot escape, and thermal energy may allow some electrons to overcome the potential barrier. The importance of ensuring continuity in wave function solutions at the potential boundary is emphasized, with corrections made regarding the treatment of the potential. The conversation concludes with a consensus that E must be greater than zero for the model to be valid.
EE18
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Homework Statement
Ballentine Problem 4.3 (which I am self-studying) gives is as follows:

The simplest model for the potential experienced by an electron at the surface of a metal is a step: ##W(z) = —V_0 for z < 0 ## (inside the metal) and ##W(z) =0 for z > 0## (outside the metal). For an electron that approaches the surface from the interior, with momentum ##\hbar k## in the positive ##x## direction, calculate the probability that it will escape.
Relevant Equations
$$-\frac{h^2}{2M}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + W\psi = E\psi \implies -\frac{h^2}{2M}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} = (E-W)\psi$$
I am struggling with how to go about this; in particular, I'm not sure I understand what state is being alluded to when Ballentine says "For an electron that approaches the surface from the interior, with momentum ##\hbar k## in the positive ##x## direction, calculate the probability that it will escape." Presumably I am supposed to find some eigenstate of ##H## here, but am I to take a state with ##E>|V_0|## or ##E<|V_0|##? I would imagine we're interested in a bound state (so ##-V_0<E<0##)?
 
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You should probably consider both cases. You will find that the probability is 0 if ##E<0## as you may intuitively expect.
 
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vela said:
You should probably consider both cases. You will find that the probability is 0 if ##E<\lvert V_0 \rvert## as you may intuitively expect.
I see; how then is this a model for a surface of a metal when in general the electron states in a metal are bound?
 
Can you solve the Shrodinger Equation for a finite step potential at x=0? There are no "bound" (localized) states per se. There are states that fill the solid (for E<0) and states that fill all space (for E>0). For the latter states you can find define the Transmission and Reflection asymptotically for large negative and positive z
 
hutchphd said:
Can you solve the Shrodinger Equation for a finite step potential at x=0? There are no "bound" (localized) states per se. There are states that fill the solid (for E<0) and states that fill all space (for E>0). For the latter states you can find define the Transmission and Reflection asymptotically for large negative and positive z
I have this so far and will continue on. Does this seem like a reasonable argument for excluding the $E<0$ possibility rigorously?

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EE18 said:
I see; how then is this a model for a surface of a metal when in general the electron states in a metal are bound?
If you're assuming the electron is bound, then by assumption it can't escape.

You might imagine a case where the metal is hot enough so that some fraction of the electrons have enough thermal energy to escape if they reach the surface.
 
vela said:
If you're assuming the electron is bound, then by assumption it can't escape.

You might imagine a case where the metal is hot enough so that some fraction of the electrons have enough thermal energy to escape if they reach the surface.
I see, that makes sense -- thank you! I am so used to seeing artificial ground state textbook cases in solid state physics texts that I didn't think of that.
 
EE18 said:
I have this so far and will continue on. Does this seem like a reasonable argument for excluding the $E<0$ possibility rigorously?
Your solution for ##x<0## (you mistakenly said ##x>0## again for the second case) is wrong. Also, the only time you're going to get discontinuities in ##\psi'## is when you have some sort of potential involving an infinity, which you don't have here. You want to construct a solution where ##\psi## and ##\psi'## are continuous at ##x=0##.
 
vela said:
Your solution for ##x<0## (you mistakenly said ##x>0## again for the second case) is wrong. Also, the only time you're going to get discontinuities in ##\psi'## is when you have some sort of potential involving an infinity, which you don't have here. You want to construct a solution where ##\psi## and ##\psi'## are continuous at ##x=0##.
Sorry for not being clear, you are right re ##x>0##. In general, my strategy was to give a solution for ##x>0## and show that it could not be stitched together with the ##x<0## solution in such a way as ##\psi'## was continuous. Is that correct? Also why is my (intended) ##x<0## solution wrong?
 
  • #10
OMG. Why would you redefine the potential halfway through the problem. Please use LateX and start again if you want help here..... There are no bound states. Scattering from a potential step is treated in almost every textbook.
 
  • #11
EE18 said:
Sorry for not being clear, you are right re ##x>0##. In general, my strategy was to give a solution for ##x>0## and show that it could not be stitched together with the ##x<0## solution in such a way as ##\psi'## was continuous. Is that correct? Also why is my (intended) ##x<0## solution wrong?
Oh, I didn't notice you redefined the potential. With the new potential, you have to have ##E>0##. That should make clear why your ##x<0## solution is wrong.
 
  • #12
vela said:
Oh, I didn't notice you redefined the potential. With the new potential, you have to have ##E>0##. That should make clear why your ##x<0## solution is wrong.
I agree ##E>0##; to be clear, I was trying to show in this part of the solution (it's not a complete solution yet) why ##E<0## is impossible since it's not excluded on the basis of e.g. Hermitian operators having real eigenvalues a priori.
 

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