Electron encountering metal surface (1D Step potential)

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the quantum mechanics of an electron encountering a metal surface modeled as a 1D step potential. Participants analyze the conditions under which an electron can escape the potential barrier, specifically addressing the energy states of the electron relative to the potential, denoted as ##V_0##. Key conclusions include that for bound states (##E < 0##), the probability of escape is zero, while for unbound states (##E > 0##), the electron can escape if it possesses sufficient thermal energy. The necessity of ensuring continuity in the wave function and its derivative at the boundary is also emphasized.

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  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wave functions and potential barriers.
  • Familiarity with the Schrödinger Equation and its applications in quantum systems.
  • Knowledge of energy states in quantum mechanics, specifically bound and unbound states.
  • Basic concepts of scattering theory as applied to potential steps.
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EE18
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Homework Statement
Ballentine Problem 4.3 (which I am self-studying) gives is as follows:

The simplest model for the potential experienced by an electron at the surface of a metal is a step: ##W(z) = —V_0 for z < 0 ## (inside the metal) and ##W(z) =0 for z > 0## (outside the metal). For an electron that approaches the surface from the interior, with momentum ##\hbar k## in the positive ##x## direction, calculate the probability that it will escape.
Relevant Equations
$$-\frac{h^2}{2M}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + W\psi = E\psi \implies -\frac{h^2}{2M}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} = (E-W)\psi$$
I am struggling with how to go about this; in particular, I'm not sure I understand what state is being alluded to when Ballentine says "For an electron that approaches the surface from the interior, with momentum ##\hbar k## in the positive ##x## direction, calculate the probability that it will escape." Presumably I am supposed to find some eigenstate of ##H## here, but am I to take a state with ##E>|V_0|## or ##E<|V_0|##? I would imagine we're interested in a bound state (so ##-V_0<E<0##)?
 
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You should probably consider both cases. You will find that the probability is 0 if ##E<0## as you may intuitively expect.
 
Last edited:
vela said:
You should probably consider both cases. You will find that the probability is 0 if ##E<\lvert V_0 \rvert## as you may intuitively expect.
I see; how then is this a model for a surface of a metal when in general the electron states in a metal are bound?
 
Can you solve the Shrodinger Equation for a finite step potential at x=0? There are no "bound" (localized) states per se. There are states that fill the solid (for E<0) and states that fill all space (for E>0). For the latter states you can find define the Transmission and Reflection asymptotically for large negative and positive z
 
hutchphd said:
Can you solve the Shrodinger Equation for a finite step potential at x=0? There are no "bound" (localized) states per se. There are states that fill the solid (for E<0) and states that fill all space (for E>0). For the latter states you can find define the Transmission and Reflection asymptotically for large negative and positive z
I have this so far and will continue on. Does this seem like a reasonable argument for excluding the $E<0$ possibility rigorously?

Screen Shot 2023-03-27 at 2.16.27 PM.png
 
EE18 said:
I see; how then is this a model for a surface of a metal when in general the electron states in a metal are bound?
If you're assuming the electron is bound, then by assumption it can't escape.

You might imagine a case where the metal is hot enough so that some fraction of the electrons have enough thermal energy to escape if they reach the surface.
 
vela said:
If you're assuming the electron is bound, then by assumption it can't escape.

You might imagine a case where the metal is hot enough so that some fraction of the electrons have enough thermal energy to escape if they reach the surface.
I see, that makes sense -- thank you! I am so used to seeing artificial ground state textbook cases in solid state physics texts that I didn't think of that.
 
EE18 said:
I have this so far and will continue on. Does this seem like a reasonable argument for excluding the $E<0$ possibility rigorously?
Your solution for ##x<0## (you mistakenly said ##x>0## again for the second case) is wrong. Also, the only time you're going to get discontinuities in ##\psi'## is when you have some sort of potential involving an infinity, which you don't have here. You want to construct a solution where ##\psi## and ##\psi'## are continuous at ##x=0##.
 
vela said:
Your solution for ##x<0## (you mistakenly said ##x>0## again for the second case) is wrong. Also, the only time you're going to get discontinuities in ##\psi'## is when you have some sort of potential involving an infinity, which you don't have here. You want to construct a solution where ##\psi## and ##\psi'## are continuous at ##x=0##.
Sorry for not being clear, you are right re ##x>0##. In general, my strategy was to give a solution for ##x>0## and show that it could not be stitched together with the ##x<0## solution in such a way as ##\psi'## was continuous. Is that correct? Also why is my (intended) ##x<0## solution wrong?
 
  • #10
OMG. Why would you redefine the potential halfway through the problem. Please use LateX and start again if you want help here..... There are no bound states. Scattering from a potential step is treated in almost every textbook.
 
  • #11
EE18 said:
Sorry for not being clear, you are right re ##x>0##. In general, my strategy was to give a solution for ##x>0## and show that it could not be stitched together with the ##x<0## solution in such a way as ##\psi'## was continuous. Is that correct? Also why is my (intended) ##x<0## solution wrong?
Oh, I didn't notice you redefined the potential. With the new potential, you have to have ##E>0##. That should make clear why your ##x<0## solution is wrong.
 
  • #12
vela said:
Oh, I didn't notice you redefined the potential. With the new potential, you have to have ##E>0##. That should make clear why your ##x<0## solution is wrong.
I agree ##E>0##; to be clear, I was trying to show in this part of the solution (it's not a complete solution yet) why ##E<0## is impossible since it's not excluded on the basis of e.g. Hermitian operators having real eigenvalues a priori.
 

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