Energy Problem involving simple harmonic motion

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around determining the time when the potential energy (PE) equals the kinetic energy (KE) for a particle in simple harmonic motion described by the equation x = 10 sin(πt + π/2). The user attempts to derive the relationship between KE and PE using the equations KE = 1/2 mv^2 and PE = 1/2 kx^2, but encounters algebraic errors and confusion regarding the disappearance of mass (m) and spring constant (k) in their calculations. After clarifying the relationship between angular frequency and the constants, the user explores an alternative approach, ultimately concluding that the time when PE equals KE is 0.9 seconds. The discussion highlights the importance of careful algebraic manipulation and understanding of harmonic motion principles.
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Homework Statement


The motion of a particle is described by x = 10 sin (piet +pie/2 ). At what time ( in second ) is the potential energy equal to the kinetic energy ?


Homework Equations




KE = 1/2 mv^2 PE=1/2 Kx^2

The Attempt at a Solution



V=pie10cos(piet + pie/3)
V^2 = pie^2 100cos^2(piet+ pie/3)
KE = mpie5ocos^2 (piet + pie/3)
X^2 =100sin^2(piet +pie/2 )
PE =k50 sin^2(piet +pie/2 )
KE=PE
pie^2 100cos^2(piet+ pie/3) =K50 sin^2(piet +pie/2 )
m/k * pie^2 = tan^2(piet +pie/2 )
take square root of both sides of equation
1/pie * pie = tan(piet + pie/3)
piet + pie/3 =tan-1(1)
solving for t i get a negative value where iam i going wrong.
 
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There appear to be a lot of algebraic errors throughout. Where has the m and k gone from the equation toward the end?

EDIt: up to the this point you seem to be fine as far as I can tell:

m/k * pie^2 = tan^2(piet +pie/2 )

I just want to know how you got rid of the m and k in the next step?
 
w(angular frequency) = (k/m)^0.5 so
1/w=m/k
siince w = pie
m/k = 1/pie
 
I tried a different approach and got the same answer. since the motion is SHM one would think that value +n2\pi should work.
 
what is n2PI is it equal to m/k ?
 
You can wright PE = 1/2*m*w^2*x^2 and KE = 1/2*m*w^2*(A^2 - x^2)
When PE = KE, we get 2x^2 = A^2 or x = A/sqrt2. Put this value in the equation of SHM.
A/sqrt2 = Asin(pi*t + Pi/2 ) or 1/sqrt2 = sin(pi*t + pi/2). Sin(pi/4) = sin(3*pi/4) = 1/sqrt2 To avoide negative time, take sin(3pi/4) = sin(pi*t + pi/2)
That gives you t = 1/4 s.
 
Last edited:
the anwser is 0.9 s
 
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