- #1
EskWIRED
- 99
- 0
I've seen a lot of statements regarding Einstein's equivalence principle.
Many formulate it to say that no experiment can distinguish between a reference frame in a gravitational field and an accelerating reference frame.
But - isn't is true that in a gravitational field, tidal effects are present, while in an accelerating frame, no such tidal effects re present?
Isn't this a dead giveaway as to which phenomenon is being observed?
Is the problem merely a sloppy description of the equivalence principle?
Is a more precise formulation that one cannot distinguish between the two ONLY in the context of an experiment involving a single fundamental particle?
If so, ISTM that the principle is very limited in its applicability. If so, does this limitation have any profound implications?
Am I being pedantic? Just complaining about fuzzy descriptions I've read in the popular literature?
Where can I read more precise and accurate descriptions of the principle, its limitations and its implications?
Many formulate it to say that no experiment can distinguish between a reference frame in a gravitational field and an accelerating reference frame.
But - isn't is true that in a gravitational field, tidal effects are present, while in an accelerating frame, no such tidal effects re present?
Isn't this a dead giveaway as to which phenomenon is being observed?
Is the problem merely a sloppy description of the equivalence principle?
Is a more precise formulation that one cannot distinguish between the two ONLY in the context of an experiment involving a single fundamental particle?
If so, ISTM that the principle is very limited in its applicability. If so, does this limitation have any profound implications?
Am I being pedantic? Just complaining about fuzzy descriptions I've read in the popular literature?
Where can I read more precise and accurate descriptions of the principle, its limitations and its implications?