Exploring the Amplitude of de Broglie Waves: A Question on Mass and Velocity

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The discussion centers on the amplitude of de Broglie waves produced by an object with resting mass m0 at velocity v. One participant suggests that the amplitude may be proportional to the Lorentz factor, m0/sqrt(1+v^2/c^2), but another argues that calculating the amplitude is not feasible. They reference Quantum Mechanics, specifically the solution of Schrödinger's Equation, which results in a wave function with an undetermined coefficient. This coefficient is adjusted to ensure the probability density integrates to one, indicating the particle's existence at all times. The conversation highlights the complexities of defining amplitude in the context of quantum wave mechanics.
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What is the amplitude of the wave produced by an object of resting mass m0 when it is going a velocity v? I haven't come across any information on the amplitude of de Broglie waves, and thus I assume that the amplitude of the wave is proportional to the Lorentz factor, m0/sqrt(1+v^2/c^2). Is this correct?

Thanks for your input
 
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i don't think you can calculate the amplitude in that case.

normally, i thought in Quantum Mechanics, one solves Shrodingers Equation for \Psi(t, x, y, z) resulting in a function (or set of functions) for which there remains an undetermined coefficient multiplying the whole thing. and for each value of t, one integrates |\Psi(t, x, y, z)|^2 over all x, y, and z, then sets the scaling constant to whatever it has to be so that that integral is 1 (meaning that the particle must exist somewhere for every point in time.
 
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