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I was playing around with complex exponentials and came to this result:
$\begin{eqnarray*}<br /> e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}&=&e^\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)\left(\pi i\right)\\<br /> &=&\left(e^{\pi i}\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\<br /> &=&\left(-1\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\<br /> &=&1\end{eqnarray*}$
But obviously e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}=\mathrm{cos}\frac{2\pi}{5}+i \mathrm{sin}\frac{2\pi}{5}\approx 0.309+0.951i\neq 1
So after some research I found that the exponential law a^{mn}=\left(a^{m}\right)^{n} is only true when a,m,n\in\mathbb{R} and not otherwise.
My question now is WHY does the index law fail for imaginary base/exponents?
Thanks!
*PS how can I get rid of that (0) appearing after the eqnarray in my $\LaTeX$ code above?? :P
$\begin{eqnarray*}<br /> e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}&=&e^\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)\left(\pi i\right)\\<br /> &=&\left(e^{\pi i}\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\<br /> &=&\left(-1\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\<br /> &=&1\end{eqnarray*}$
But obviously e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}=\mathrm{cos}\frac{2\pi}{5}+i \mathrm{sin}\frac{2\pi}{5}\approx 0.309+0.951i\neq 1
So after some research I found that the exponential law a^{mn}=\left(a^{m}\right)^{n} is only true when a,m,n\in\mathbb{R} and not otherwise.
My question now is WHY does the index law fail for imaginary base/exponents?
Thanks!
*PS how can I get rid of that (0) appearing after the eqnarray in my $\LaTeX$ code above?? :P
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