Exponential projection operator in Dirac formalism

Dixanadu
Messages
250
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement


Hey guys.

So here's the situation:
Consider the Hilbert space H_{\frac{1}{2}}, which is spanned by the orthonormal kets |j,m_{j}> with j=\frac{1}{2}, m_{j}=(\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}). Let |+> = |\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}> and |->=|\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}>. Define the following two projection operators:

\hat{P}_{+}=|+><+| and \hat{P}_{-}=|-><-|.

Now consider the operator \hat{O}=e^{i\alpha \hat{P}_{+}+i\beta \hat{P}_{-}}.

Compute the following:

<+|\hat{O}|+>

<-|\hat{O}|->

<-|\hat{O}|+>

Homework Equations



orthonormality stuff: <+|+> = <-|-> = 1, <-|+> = <+|-> = 0.

Series representation of e^x:

e^{x}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{k}}{k!}


The Attempt at a Solution



So here's what I've done. Of course you gota represent the operator O in a nicer way, and this is what I need to know if I've done right:

e^{i\alpha \hat{P}_{+}}=I+(i\alpha) \hat{P}_{+} + \frac{(i\alpha)^{2}}{2}\hat{P}_{+}+...=I+\hat{P}_{+}(i\alpha + \frac{(i\alpha)^2}{2}+...)=I+\hat{P}_{+}(e^{i\alpha}-1)

Similarly:

e^{i\beta \hat{P}_{-}}=I+\hat{P}_{-}(e^{i\beta}-1)

where I is the identity matrix. Now, O is a product of these two:

\hat{O}=[I+\hat{P}_{+}(e^{i\alpha}-1)][I+\hat{P}_{-}(e^{i\beta}-1)]=I+\hat{P}_{+}(e^{i\alpha}-1)+\hat{P}_{-}(e^{i\beta}-1)

because the cross-terms in the product vanish as \hat{P}_{+}\hat{P}_{-}=0

So that's my expression for O. Using that, I find that

&lt;+|\hat{O}|+&gt;=e^{i\alpha}. I haven't done the rest yet, but is this one right guys...?

please tell me if I've made any math errors!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Dixanadu said:
e^{i\alpha \hat{P}_{+}}=I+(i\alpha) \hat{P}_{+} + \frac{(i\alpha)^{2}}{2}\hat{P}_{+}+...=I+\hat{P}_{+}(i\alpha + \frac{(i\alpha)^2}{2}+...)=I+\hat{P}_{+}(e^{i\alpha}-1)

Hi.
That's right because (\hat{P}_{\pm})^{n} = \hat{P}_{\pm}, otherwise you would have to determine all exponents of the operators.
You're good so far!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top